Please help meeeee!!!! Rewrite each number in exponential notation using 2 as the base: 8= 16= 32= 64= 128= 256=

Mathematics

2 answers:

denis-greek [22]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

the anwser may be two

Step-by-step explanation:

Dennis_Churaev [7]3 years ago

5 0

Step-by-step explanation:

$a^n=\underbrace{a\cdot a\cdot a\cdot...\cdot a}_{n}$

$8=2\cdot2\cdot2=2^3\\\\16=2\cdot2\cdot2\cdot2=2^4\\\\32=2\cdot2\cdot2\cdot2\cdot2=2^5\\\\64=2\cdot2\cdot2\cdot2\cdot2\cdot2=2^6\\\\128=2\cdot2\cdot2\cdot2\cdot2\cdot2\cdot2=2^7\\\\256=2\cdot2\cdot2\cdot2\cdot2\cdot2\cdot2\cdot2=2^8$

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It takes 0.5 gallon of cream to make 1 pound of butter.

Pavlova-9 [17]

Yes I think it really is the correct answer

4 0

2 years ago

Suppose we have a binomial experiment in which success is defined to be a particular quality or attribute that interests us.

mestny [16]

For a binomial experiment in which success is defined to be a particular quality or attribute that interests us, with n=36 and p as 0.23, we can approximate p hat by a normal distribution.

Since n=36 , p=0.23 , thus q= 1-p = 1-0.23=0.77

therefore,

n*p= 36*0.23 =8.28>5

n*q = 36*0.77=27.22>5

and therefore, p hat can be approximated by a normal random variable, because n*p>5 and n*q>5.

The question is incomplete, a possible complete question is:

Suppose we have a binomial experiment in which success is defined to be a particular quality or attribute that interests us.

Suppose n = 36 and p = 0.23. Can we approximate p hat by a normal distribution? Why? (Use 2 decimal places.)

n*p = ?

n*q = ?

Learn to know more about binomial experiments at

brainly.com/question/1580153