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3 years ago

Hello i need help plz

Mathematics

1 answer:

Nikolay [14]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

the only one in five years ago and I have a good time to do so, I was just wondering 8th, I am a bit

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Which gives the line of best fit?

BartSMP [9]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0

3 years ago

Determine if the function is continuous to its domain

Maurinko [17]

Yes, it is continuous to its domain

<h2>Explanation:</h2><h2></h2>

In order to find the domain of the function we need to get the restrictions:

1. From natural log:

$x>0$

2. From quotient:

$x\neq 0$

Matching these two restrictions the domain is:

$x\in (0,\infty)$

So the function is continuous to its domain because is defined for every x-value in the interval $(0, \infty)$ )

<h2>Learn more:</h2>

Functions: brainly.com/question/12891789

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6 0

3 years ago

Mujer culona

KIM [24]

Mujer culona mujer culona mujer culona

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3 years ago

A bank in the Bay area is considering a training program for its staff. The probability that a new training program will increas

WITCHER [35]

Answer:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)') = 1-P(A \cap B)= 1-0.32=0.68$

See explanation below.

Step-by-step explanation:

For this case we define first some notation:

A= A new training program will increase customer satisfaction ratings

B= The training program can be kept within the original budget allocation

And for these two events we have defined the following probabilities

$P(A) = 0.8, P(B) = 0.2$

We are assuming that the two events are independent so then we have the following propert:

$P(A \cap B ) = P(A) * P(B)$

And we want to find the probability that the cost of the training program is not kept within budget or the training program will not increase the customer ratings so then if we use symbols we want to find:

$P(B' \cup A')$

And using the De Morgan laws we know that:

$(A \cap B)' = A' \cup B'$

So then we can write the probability like this:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)')$

And using the complement rule we can do this:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)')= 1-P(A \cap B)$

Since A and B are independent we have:

$P(A \cap B )=P(A)*P(B) =(0.8*0.4) =0.32$

And then our final answer would be:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)') = 1-P(A \cap B)= 1-0.32=0.68$

5 0

3 years ago

(4,-1). Parallel to y=-4x+2

allochka39001 [22]

Answer: x=1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

y= - 4x + 2

X=1/2

6 0

3 years ago