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Vilka [71]
3 years ago
7

: A personal computer manufacturer buys 36% of its chips from Japan and the rest from the United St...

Mathematics
1 answer:
meriva3 years ago
3 0

Answer: 0.9862

Step-by-step explanation:

Given : The probability that the chips belongs to Japan: P(J)= 0.36

The probability that the chips belongs to United States : P(U)= 1-0.36=0.64

The proportion of Japanese chips are defective : P(D|J)=0.017

The proportion of American chips are defective : P(D|U)=0.012

Using law of total probability , we have

P(D)=P(D|J)\times P(J)+P(D|U)\times P(U)\\\\\Rightarrow\ P(D)=0.017\times0.36+0.012\times0.64=0.0138

Thus , the probability that chip is defective = 0.0138

Then , the probability that a chip is defect-free=1-0.0138=0.9862

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Need help due tonight!!
Luba_88 [7]

Answer:

64

Step-by-step explanation:

Each side length is being multiplied by 8

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
#10 i The table shows the admission costs (in dollars) and the average number of daily visitors at an amusement park each the pa
lions [1.4K]

The line of best fit is a straight line that can be used to predict the

average daily attendance for a given admission cost.

Correct responses:

  • The equation of best fit is; \underline{ \hat Y = 1,042 - 4.9 \cdot X_i}
  • The correlation coefficient is; r ≈<u> -0.969</u>

<h3>Methods by which the line of best fit is found</h3>

The given data is presented in the following tabular format;

\begin{tabular}{|c|c|c|c|c|c|c|c|c|}Cost, (dollars), x&20&21&22&24&25&27&28&30\\Daily attendance, y&940&935&940&925&920&905&910&890\end{array}\right]

The equation of the line of best fit is given by the regression line

equation as follows;

  • \hat Y = \mathbf{b_0 + b_1 \cdot X_i}

Where;

\hat Y = Predicted value of the<em> i</em>th observation

b₀ = Estimated regression equation intercept

b₁ = The estimate of the slope regression equation

X_i = The <em>i</em>th observed value

b_1 = \mathbf{\dfrac{\sum (X - \overline X) \cdot (Y - \overline Y) }{\sum \left(X - \overline X \right)^2}}

\overline X = 24.625

\overline Y = 960.625

\mathbf{\sum(X - \overline X) \cdot (Y - \overline Y)} = -433.125

\mathbf{\sum(X - \overline X)^2} = 87.875

Therefore;

b_1 = \mathbf{\dfrac{-433.125}{87.875}} \approx -4.9289

Therefore;

  • The slope given to the nearest tenth is b₁ ≈ -4.9

b_0 = \mathbf{\dfrac{\left(\sum Y \right) \cdot \left(\sum X^2 \right) - \left(\sum X \right) \cdot \left(\sum X \cdot Y\right)} {n \cdot \left(\sum X^2\right) - \left(\sum X \right)^2}}

By using MS Excel, we have;

n = 8

∑X = 197

∑Y = 7365

∑X² = 4939

∑Y² = 6782675

∑X·Y = 180930

(∑X)² = 38809

Therefore;

b_0 = \dfrac{7365 \times 4939-197 \times 180930}{8 \times 4939 - 38809} \approx \mathbf{1041.9986}

  • The y-intercept given to the nearest tenth is b₀ ≈ 1,042

The equation of the line of best fit is therefore;

  • \underline{\hat Y = 1042 - 4.9 \cdot X_i}

The correlation coefficient is given by the formula;

\displaystyle r = \mathbf{\dfrac{\sum \left(X_i - \overline X) \cdot \left(Y - \overline Y \right)}{ \sqrt{\sum \left(X_i - \overline X \right)^2 \cdot \sum \left(Y_i - \overline Y \right)^2} }}

Where;

\sqrt{\sum \left(X - \overline X \right)^2 \times \sum \left(Y - \overline Y \right)^2}  = \mathbf{446.8121}

\sum \left(X_i - \overline X \right) \times \left(Y - \overline Y\right) = \mathbf{-433.125}

Which gives;

r = \dfrac{-433.125}{446.8121}  \approx \mathbf{-0.969367213}

The correlation coefficient given to the nearest thousandth is therefore;

  • <u>Correlation coefficient, r ≈ -0.969</u>

Learn more about regression analysis here:

brainly.com/question/14279500

7 0
2 years ago
Anyone know this one?
9966 [12]

Answer:

(-3, 5), (1, 4), (-2, 3), and (0, 2).

Step-by-step explanation:

When a function is inverted, the x-values become y-values, and the y-values become x-values.

The ordered pairs for the function are (5, -3), (4, 1), (3, -2), and (2, 0).

After inversion, the ordered pairs will be (-3, 5), (1, 4), (-2, 3), and (0, 2).

Hope this helps!

7 0
2 years ago
What is the answer meyn?
Alexandra [31]

Answer:

the best value is two 50 ml bottles

Step-by-step explanation:

Okay focus with me , if you buy a bottle of 50 ml you will get a second for half price so we can say that --> 2 bottles of 50 ml =

45 +  \frac{45}{2}  = 67.5

We get 100 ml with £67.5 just , but when you buy 80ml you must pay £55 Hum !

then you can dived the volume of bottle with price ...

  • the price of one ml is 0.675 in first State

\frac{67.5}{100 } = 0.675

  • in the second state the price of one ml is

\frac{55}{80}  = 0.6875

then :

0.675 < 0.6875

so the best value is two 50 ml bottles

4 0
3 years ago
What is $1,000,00 - $296,900 - $69,607= ?
ololo11 [35]

Answer:

$633,493

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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