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Likurg_2 [28]
3 years ago
12

in bohr's atomic theory when electron moves from one energy level to another energy level more distant from the nucleus energy i

s emitted right?
Physics
1 answer:
Katyanochek1 [597]3 years ago
3 0
No, it is the other way around. When an electron moves from one energy level to another energy level more distant from the nucleus, it gains, not emits energy. The closer it gets to the nucleus, the more energy it emits. If it is far from the nucleus, it gains more energy. 
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Miss Piggy is exercising her vocal chords by matching the frequency f = 686 Hz of her speaker 4 m away. Where should Kermit sit
monitta

Answer:

z=\frac{2n+1}{8} for n=0,1,2,3,...,15

Where z=0 m is the position of Miss Piggy and z=4 m is the position of the speaker.

Explanation:

Assuming that Miss Piggy emits a sound wave that is in phase with the speaker, and that z=0 is the position of Miss Piggy and z=4 is the position of the speaker, we would have a superposition of two traveling sound waves. Furthermore let's assume that both waves have the same amplitude. The total resulting wave will be given by:

\psi(t,z)=A\cos(\omega t-kz)+A\cos(\omega t +kz) where \omega is the angular frequency of the traveling wave and k is the wave number defined as k=\frac{2\pi}{\lambda}. \lambda is the wavelength of both traveling waves (they have the same wavelength because they have the same frequency). \lambda=\frac{v}{f} where v is the speed of sound.

By using the trigonometric identity 2\cos(A)\cos(B)=\cos(A+B)+\cos(A-B) we can rewrite \psi (t,z) as

\psi (t,z)=2A\cos(\omega t)\cos(kz).

In order for the resulting wave to have maximum destructive interference, that is to be zero for any time t, we need to have

\cos(kz)=0

\implies kz=(2n+1)\cdot \frac{\pi}{2}\implies z=(2n+1)\frac{\pi}{2k}=(2n+1)\frac{\pi}{2}\frac{\lambda}{2\pi}=(2n+1)\cdot \frac{\lambda}{4}

\implies z=(2n+1)\cdot\frac{v}{4f}=\frac{2n+1}{8}

3 0
3 years ago
Would u rather/ have a penny that duplicates its self every day or win 1 million dollars once
arlik [135]

Answer:

1 million dollars once

Explanation:

Well, both would be nice. In total, you will get more from the million dollars because it takes over 2,739 years to get 1 million dollars worth of pennies.(if you get 1 a day that is)

8 0
3 years ago
Find the velocity. 10 points. Will give brainliest!
BARSIC [14]

Answer:

6.060606...

Explanation:

To figure out velocity, you divide the distance by the time it takes to travel that same distance, then you add your direction to it. So the distance would be 1000m and the time would be 2 minutes and 45 seconds and if you convert the minutes into fractions you would get 165 seconds than you would divide 1000m by 165 seconds and you would get 6.060606... seconds as her average velocity

4 0
4 years ago
Help me frfr I don’t understand
Art [367]

The points are

(1,10)

(6,0)

\boxed{\sf slope(m)=\dfrac{y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}}

\\ \sf\longmapsto m=\dfrac{0-10}{6-1}

\\ \sf\longmapsto m=\dfrac{-10}{5}

\\ \sf\longmapsto m=-2

6 0
3 years ago
A refrigerator had a mass of 73 kg. What is the weight of the refrigerator in newtons
Sophie [7]

Answer:

715.4 N

Explanation:

W = mg

= 73 kg*9.8m/s²

= 715.4 N

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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