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Valentin [98]
3 years ago
9

A television normally sells for $320. This week, it's on sale at 60% of the normal price. What is the sale price?

Mathematics
2 answers:
ludmilkaskok [199]3 years ago
7 0
The answer to the question above is $128 

Neko [114]3 years ago
5 0
B. 192....................
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The amount of soft drink in a bottle is a Normal random variable. Suppose that in 7% of the bottles containing this soft drink t
WITCHER [35]

Answer:

The mean is 15.93 ounces and the standard deviation is 0.29 ounces.

Step-by-step explanation:

Problems of normally distributed samples are solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean \mu and standard deviation \sigma, the zscore of a measure X is given by:

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the pvalue, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

7% of the bottles containing this soft drink there are less than 15.5 ounces

This means that when X = 15.5, Z has a pvalue of 0.07. So when X = 15.5, Z = -1.475.

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}

-1.475 = \frac{15.5 - \mu}{\sigma}

15.5 - \mu = -1.475\sigma

\mu = 15.5 + 1.475\sigma

10% of them there are more than 16.3 ounces.

This means that when X = 16.3, Z has a pvalue of 1-0.1 = 0.9. So when X = 16.3, Z = 1.28.

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}

1.28 = \frac{16.3 - \mu}{\sigma}

16.3 - \mu = 1.28\sigma

\mu = 16.3 – 1.28\sigma

From above

\mu = 15.5 + 1.475\sigma

So

15.5 + 1.475\sigma = 16.3 – 1.28\sigma

2.755\sigma = 0.8

\sigma = \frac{0.8}{2.755}

\sigma = 0.29

The mean is

\mu = 15.5 + 1.475\sigma = 15.5 + 1.475*0.29 = 15.93

The mean is 15.93 ounces and the standard deviation is 0.29 ounces.

6 0
3 years ago
If the quadrilateral below is a kite, find m
Debora [2.8K]

Answer:

49°

Step-by-step explanation:

7.5x-15+90=180

7.5x+75 =180

7.5x=105

x =14

so NPQ = ( 4×14 -7 ) = 49° this the answer

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is 1.44 divided by 0.4
Mashutka [201]
The quotient to 1.44 and 0.4 equals to 3.6
5 0
3 years ago
I need working out and answers for the following:
LenaWriter [7]
A. 4x - 3 = 2x + 7
4x - 2x = 7 + 3
2x = 10
x = 5

B. 2x + 6 = 7x - 14
2x - 7x = - 14 - 6
-5x = -20
x = 4

C. 2( x + 3) = x - 4
2x + 6 = x - 4
2x - x = -4 - 6
x = -10

D.4 ( 5x - 2) = 2( 9x + 3)
20x - 8 = 18x + 6
20x - 18x = 6 + 8
2x = 14
x = 7

E.4x - 1/2 = x - 7
4x - x = -7 + 1/2
3x = (-14 + 1)/2
3x = -13/2
x = -13/6

F. 3x + 2 = 2x + 13/3
3x - 2x = 13/3 - 2
x = (13 - 6)/3
x = 7/3


Hope This Helps You!
4 0
3 years ago
You take a quiz with 6 multiple choice questions. After you studied your estimated that you would have about an 80 % chance of g
Arada [10]

Answer:

1.15%

Step-by-step explanation:

To get the probability of m  independent events you multiply the individual probability of each event. In this case we have m independent events, each one with the same probability, therefore:

p^{m}

0.8^{20} = 1.15\%

This is a particlar scenario of binomial distribution problem. So the binomial distribution questions are about the number of success of m independent events, where every individual event has the same p probability. In the question we have 20 events and each event has a probability of 80%. The binomial distribution formula is:

\binom{n}{k} * p^{k} * (1-p)^{n-k}

n is the number of events

k is the number of success

p is the probability of each individual event

\binom{n}{k} is the binomial coefficient

the binomial coefficient allows to find the subsets of k elements in a set of n elements.  In this case there is only one subset possible since the only way to get 20 of 20 correct questions is to getting right all questions (for getting 19 of 20 questions there are many ways, for example getting the first question wrong and all the other questions right, or getting second questions wrong and all the other questions right, etc).

\binom{n}{k} = \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}

therefore, for this questions we have:

\frac{20!}{20!(20-20)!} * 0.8^{20} * (1-0.8)^{0} = 1.15\%

4 0
3 years ago
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