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Naddik [55]
2 years ago
7

I need to simplify ​

Mathematics
1 answer:
olganol [36]2 years ago
7 0
Lol ok simplify what
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Whereas < is called a relational operator, x < y is called a(n) _______?
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The answer will be Relational Expression as y and x are being compared, one being greater/smaller than the other.
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2 years ago
How long is the diagonal of this rectangle?<br> 8 in<br> 15 in
Novay_Z [31]

Answer:

32in

Step-by-step explanation:

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6 0
3 years ago
it takes an airplane 1 hour 30 minutes to fly 600 km against the wind. the return trip with the wind takes only 1 hour. find the
DiKsa [7]

The total flying time for the round trip if there was no wind would be 2 hours 24 minutes. The result is obtained by using the elimination method.

<h3>What is elimination method?</h3>

The elimination method is a method for solving system of linear equations where we eliminate one variable so that we can get an equation in one variable. In doing that, we can either add or subtract the equations.

Given the case that an airplane takes 1 hour 30 minutes to fly 600 km against the wind. It takes only 1 hour in the return trip.

What would be the total flying time for the round trip if there was no wind?

Let's say:

  • v = the speed of the airplane
  • w = the speed of the wind

When the airplane leaves,

v - w = 600 km / 1.5 hour

v - w = 400 kph ... (<em>equation 1</em>)

When the airplane returns,

v + w = 600 km / 1 hour

v + w = 600 kph ... (<em>equation 2</em>)

We eliminate the equation 2 and 1 to get the speed of the airplane.

v - w = 400 kph

<u>v + w = 600 kph</u> +

2v = 1000 kph

v = 1000 ÷ 2

v = 500 kph

For the round trip, the airplane would fly 600 × 2 = 1200 km.

The total flying time if there was no wind would be

t = s/v

t = 1200/500

t = 2.4 hour

t = 2 hours 24 minutes

Hence, the  total flying time for the round trip if there was no wind is 2 hours 24 minutes.

Learn more about elimination method here:

brainly.com/question/14619835

#SPJ4

4 0
1 year ago
Please help me with this assignment ​
Ira Lisetskai [31]

Answer:

-1/8

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Given that KJ=MN and that L is the midpoint of JN prove that KJ=NML
uysha [10]

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the information you could technically have KJ and MN not be parallel, and in that case  the triangles would not be similar.

6 0
3 years ago
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