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const2013 [10]
3 years ago
6

HELP PLEASE AND THANK YOU 1JAAB

Mathematics
1 answer:
Dafna1 [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

\bold{Q1}\ side\ BD\\\\\bold{Q2}\ \angle5\ \leftrightarrow\ \angle6\\\\\bold{Q3}\ \triangle TAP\\\\\bold{Q4}\ \triangle APT

Step-by-step explanation:

For Q1 and Q2

\text{If}\ AB\cong AC,\ BD\cong CD,\ RSTU\ \text{is a parallelogram (rectangle)},\ \text{then}\\\\\angle 1\ \leftrightarrow\ \angle2\\\angle3\ \leftrightarrow\ \angle4\\\angle C\leftrightarrow\ \angle B\\\angle 5\ \leftrightarrow\ \angle6\\\angle7\ \leftrightarrow\ \angle 8\\\angle R\ \leftrightarrow\ \angle T\\\angle S\ \leftrightarrow\ \angle U

\overline{AB}\ \leftrightarrow\ \overline{AC}\\\overline{BD}\ \leftrightarrow\ \overline{CD}\\\\\overline{RS}\ \leftrightarrow\ \overline{TU}\\\overline{ST}\ \leftrightarrow\ \overline{UR}

For Q3 and Q4

O\ \leftrightarrow\ T\\B\ \leftrightarrow\ A\\R\ \leftrightarrow\ P\\\\E\ \leftrightarrow\ X\\F\ \leftrightarrow\ W\\D\ \leftrightarrow\ T

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The quarterly returns for a group of 6161 mutual funds are well modeled by a Normal model with a mean of 6.16.1​% and a standard
Shtirlitz [24]

Answer:

a) The cut off value of the highest 50% is 6.16%.

b) The cut off value of the highest 16% is 8.8%.

c) The cut off value of the lowest 2.5% is 0.7%.

d) The cut off values of the middle 68% is 3.4% for the lower bound and 8.8% for the higher bound.

Step-by-step explanation:

The 68–95–99.7 rule is an empirical rule to remember the percentage of values that lie within a band around the mean in a normal distribution with a width of two, four and six standard deviations respectively.

a) Cut off value of the highest 50%

It corresponds to the half that has the higher returns, which are the ones that are above the mean (0 standard deviation). The cut off value in this case is the mean x=6.16%.

b) Cut off value of the highest 16%

In this case, we use the 68 rule-value, which means that 68% of the values lies within a band around the mean with a width of two standard deviations.

The percentage that lies out of this band is 100%-68%=32%, of which 16% lies above the band (the highest 16%) and 16% lies below the band.

We can estimate, according to this rule, that the highest 16% are above the cutoff value X of μ+1σ:

X=\mu+\sigma=6.1%+2.7%=8.8%

The cut off value of the highest 16% is 8.8%.

c) Cut off of the lowest 2.5%

In this case, we use the 95 rule.

The lowest 2.5% lies below two standards deviation less of the mean

X=\mu-2*\sigma=6.1%-2*2.7%=0.7%

The cut off value of the lowest 2.5% is 0.7%.

d) Cut off of the middle 68%

In this case we calculate the band within one standard deviation.

X_{low}=\mu-\sigma=6.1%-2.7%=3.4%\\\\X_{high}=\mu+\sigma=6.1%+2.7%=8.8%

The cut off values of the middle 68% is 3.4% for the lower bound and 8.8% for the higher bound.

6 0
3 years ago
Cuanto es (60 : 10 + 8) x 2
Nataliya [291]

Answer:

28

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Which expression is equivalent to 2(-3x+5)?<br> A.-6x+5<br> B.-6x+10<br> C.6x-10<br> D.6x-5
pochemuha
B if you’re doing distributive property
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is the sum of 7.8 and 7.02
Neporo4naja [7]
The sum of 
7.8 and 7.02 would be 
14.82

because 
  7.8 
+7.02
------------
14.82


hope this helps :)  



4 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Roland’s Boat Tours sells deluxe and economy seats for each tour it conducts. In order to complete a tour, at least 1 economy se
vovangra [49]

Roland’s Boat Tours will make more money if they sell more economy seats, hence the maximum profit is attained if they only sell the minimum deluxe seat which is 6

6*35+ 24*40 = 210+960= $1170

<em />

Given details

To make a complete tour, at least 1 economy seats

and 6 deluxe seats

Maximum passengers per tour = 30

<em />

<em>"Boat Tours makes $40 profit for each </em><em>economy</em><em> seat sold and $35 profit for each deluxe seat sold"</em>

<em> </em>Therefore, to maximise profit, he needs to take more of economy seats

Hence

Let a deluxe seat be x and economy seat be y

Maximise

6 x+ 24y = 30

The maximum profit from one tour is  = 6*35+ 24*40 = 210+960= $1170

Learn more

brainly.com/question/25828237

<em />

7 0
2 years ago
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