Answer:
Explanation:
Let the charge particle have charge equal to +q .
force due to electric field will be along the field that is along y - axis . To balance it force by magnetic force must be along - y axis. ( negative of y axis )
force due to magnetic field = q ( v x B ) , v is velocity and B is magnetic field.
F = q ( v i x B k ) , ( velocity is along x direction and magnetic field is along z axis. )
= (Bqv) - j
= - Bqv j
The force will be along - ve y - direction .
If we take charge as negative or - q
force due to electric field will be along - y axis .
magnetic force = F = -q ( v i x B k )
= + Bqv j
magnetic force will be along + y axis
So it is difficult to find out the nature of charge on the particle from this experiment.
Answer:
E/4
Explanation:
The formula for electric field of a very large (essentially infinitely large) plane of charge is given by:
E = σ/(2ε₀)
Where;
E is the electric field
σ is the surface charge density
ε₀ is the electric constant.
Formula to calculate σ is;
σ = Q/A
Where;
Q is the total charge of the sheet
A is the sheet's area.
We are told the elastic sheet is a square with a side length as d, thus ;
A = d²
So;
σ = Q/d²
Putting Q/d² for σ in the electric field equation to obtain;
E = Q/(2ε₀d²)
Now, we can see that E is inversely proportional to the square of d i.e.
E ∝ 1/d²
The electric field at P has some magnitude E. We now double the side length of the sheet to 2L while keeping the same amount of charge Q distributed over the sheet.
From the relationship of E with d, the magnitude of electric field at P will now have a quarter of its original magnitude which is;
E_new = E/4
A)<span>
dQ = ρ(r) * A * dr = ρ0(1 - r/R) (4πr²)dr = 4π * ρ0(r² -
r³/R) dr
which when integrated from 0 to r is
total charge = 4π * ρ0 (r³/3 + r^4/(4R))
and when r = R our total charge is
total charge = 4π*ρ0(R³/3 + R³/4) = 4π*ρ0*R³/12 = π*ρ0*R³ / 3
and after substituting ρ0 = 3Q / πR³ we have
total charge = Q ◄
B) E = kQ/d²
since the distribution is symmetric spherically
C) dE = k*dq/r² = k*4π*ρ0(r² - r³/R)dr / r² = k*4π*ρ0(1 -
r/R)dr
so
E(r) = k*4π*ρ0*(r - r²/(2R)) from zero to r is
and after substituting for ρ0 is
E(r) = k*4π*3Q(r - r²/(2R)) / πR³ = 12kQ(r/R³ - r²/(2R^4))
which could be expressed other ways.
D) dE/dr = 0 = 12kQ(1/R³ - r/R^4) means that
r = R for a min/max (and we know it's a max since r = 0 is a
min).
<span>E) E = 12kQ(R/R³ - R²/(2R^4)) = 12kQ / 2R² = 6kQ / R² </span></span>
Answer:
The statement is true: velocity and acceleration have opposite directions in the interval of braking.
Explanation:
Let's say we have a velocity 
.
The acceleration 
is the rate of change of the velocity 
. This means that if is <em>increasing during</em> time, then must be positive. But if is <em>decreasing over</em> time, then will be negative (even though the velocity is positive).
Mathematically:
decreases ⇒
⇒
.
Example:
Answer:true
Explanation:
The lower the refractive index,the faster the velocity of light
