To determine the probability that exactly two of the five marbles are blue, we will use the rule of multiplication.
Let event A = the event that the first marble drawn is blue; and let B = the event that the second marble drawn is blue.
To start, it is given that there are 50 marbles, 20 of them are blue. Therefore, P(A) = 20/50
After the first selection, there are 49 marbles left, 19 of them are blue. Therefore, P(A|B) = 19/49
Based on the rule of multiplication:P(A ∩ B) = P(A)*P(A|B)P(A ∩ B) = (20/50) (19/49)P(A ∩ B) = 380/2450P(A ∩ B) = 38/245 or 15.51%
The probability that there will be two blue marbles among the five drawn marbles is 38/245 or 15.51%
We got the 15.51% by dividing 38 by 245. The quotient will be 0.1551. We then multiplied it by 100% resulting to 15.51%
Answer:
2 ( 2a + 3b - 4)
Putting the value of a= 2 and b = 3 in the equation
2( 2(2) + 3(3) -4)
2 (4 + 9 -4)
2( 4 -4 + 9)
2 (0 + 9)
2 (9)
2 × 9
18
For 49 It's 4*12 and 2*24 and 1*48 and for 64 it's 8*8 and 2*32
Answer:
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Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
m = 1
Step-by-step explanation:
We can suppose that the number we are looking for is for example 5.
(we can do so because the probability is the same for each number - it'sna fair dice)
For the first toss the probability we have 5 is 1/6 (we have 6 numbers on the dice and number 5 is just one of the possible 6 outcomes).
For the second toss the probability we have 5 is again 1/6.
For the rest of 3 tosses we don'tcare what number we will get( we have our two consecutive 5s), so all of the outcomes for the rest of 3 tosses are good for us (probability is 6/6 = 1)
Threfore, the probability to get two consecutive 5s is 1/6 * 1/6 * 1 * 1 * 1 = 1/36.
We can see that m = 1.
