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Ierofanga [76]
3 years ago
14

What is the equation of the parabola with focus (-2, 2) and directrix y = -1?

Mathematics
1 answer:
arsen [322]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

(x+2)^2=6(y-1/2)

Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer: 5.0

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8 0
2 years ago
Which of the following shows that ABCD is a parallelogram for x=6 and y =8? (20 points)
Reika [66]

Answer:

AB = CD = 44 and BC = AD = 31 ; so ABCD is a parallelogram

Step-by-step explanation:

A parallelogram should have two pairs of parallel sides meaning the length of side AB should be the same as the length of side CD and the length of side AD should be the same as the length of side BC.

<u>First, lets see if line AB is parallel to line CD.</u>

Let's start by finding out the length of line AB.

Since we know x = 6 we will replace x with 6 in the expression:

7(6) + 2 = 42 + 2 = 44

Now that we know the length of line AB is 44, lets find the length of line CD by replacing x with its value of 6:

9(6) - 10 = 54 - 10 = 44

Now that we know the length of line CD is 44, we can see that line AB is parallel to line CD since they both have the same length of 44.

<u>Now, lets see if line BC is parallel to line AD.</u>

Let's start by finding out the length of line BC.

Since we know y = 8 we will replace y with 8 in the expression:

3(8) + 7 = 24 + 7 = 31

Now that we know the length of line BC is 31, lets find the length of line AD by replacing y with its value of 8:

5(8) - 9 = 40 - 9 = 31

Now that we know the length of line AD is 31, we can see that line BC is parallel to line AD since they both have the same length of 31.

<u>Conclusion</u>

ABCD is a parallelogram because it contains two parallel sides.

5 0
2 years ago
Help me please! ASAP thank you :)
Nostrana [21]

Answer:

7

Step-by-step explanation:

7+2=9

7 puzzles

7 puzzles

6 0
2 years ago
A real estate agent has 12 properties that she shows. She feels that there is a 30% chance of selling any one property during a
Ronch [10]

Answer:

0.2528 = 25.28% probability of selling no more than 2 properties in one week.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each property, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they are sold, or they are not. The chance of selling any one property is independent of selling another property, which means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

A real estate agent has 12 properties that she shows.

This means that n = 12

She feels that there is a 30% chance of selling any one property during a week.

This means that p = 0.3

Compute the probability of selling no more than 2 properties in one week.

2 or less sold, which is:

P(X \leq 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{12,0}.(0.3)^{0}.(0.7)^{12} = 0.0138

P(X = 1) = C_{12,1}.(0.3)^{1}.(0.7)^{11} = 0.0712

P(X = 2) = C_{12,2}.(0.3)^{2}.(0.7)^{10} = 0.1678

Then

P(X \leq 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) = 0.0138 + 0.0712 + 0.1678 = 0.2528

0.2528 = 25.28% probability of selling no more than 2 properties in one week.

8 0
3 years ago
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