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jenyasd209 [6]
3 years ago
14

Oliver removed 56 marbles from his marble

Mathematics
2 answers:
sammy [17]3 years ago
6 0
56/8=7 so then there would be 7 groups of marbles
krok68 [10]3 years ago
5 0
ANSWER:
Total marbles =56
Number of groups =8
Therefore number of marbles in each group =56/8
= 7 marbles in each group.
HOPE IT HELPS!!!!
PLEASE MARK BRAINLIEST !!!!
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What’s a line equation passing through (14,-8) and (24,-3)
Nataly_w [17]

\bf (\stackrel{x_1}{14}~,~\stackrel{y_1}{-8})\qquad (\stackrel{x_2}{24}~,~\stackrel{y_2}{-3}) \\\\\\ \stackrel{slope}{m}\implies \cfrac{\stackrel{rise} {\stackrel{y_2}{-3}-\stackrel{y1}{(-8)}}}{\underset{run} {\underset{x_2}{24}-\underset{x_1}{14}}}\implies \cfrac{-3+8}{10}\implies \cfrac{5}{10}\implies \cfrac{1}{2}

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4 0
3 years ago
Bryce tried to solve an equation step by step. \qquad\begin{aligned} \dfrac83&=3\left(c+\dfrac53\right)\\\\ \\ \dfrac83&
sesenic [268]

Answer:

Bryce is wrong in step 1 because he did not distribute 3 over 5/3

Explanation

Given the steps taken by bryce as shown, we are to find where he made an error

\qquad\begin{aligned} \dfrac83&=3\left(c+\dfrac53\right)\\\\ \\ \dfrac83&=3c+\dfrac53&\green{\text{Step } 1}\\\\ \\ 1&=3c&\blue{\text{Step } 2}\\\\ \\ \dfrac13&=c&\purple{\text{Step } 3}\\\\ \end{aligned}

Given the expression;

\dfrac83&=3\left(c+\dfrac53\right)\\\\ \\

Step 1:Expand the bracket using the distributive law;

8/3 = 3c + 3(5/3)

<em>Simplify</em>

8/3 = 3c + 15/3

Step 2: Subtract 15/3 from both sides

8/3 - 15/3 = 3c+15/3-15/3

(8-15)/3 = 3c

-7/3 = 3c

Step 3: Multiply both sides by 1/3

-7/3 * 1/3 = 3c * 1/3

-7/9 = c

Swap

c = -7/9

From the calculation, we can see that Bryce is wrong in step 1 because he did not distribute 3 over 5/3 thereby making his solution incorrect

3 0
3 years ago
Lin father is paying for a 20 meal he has a 15 off coupon for the meal what is the total after the discount
wel

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

20÷100=0.2

0.2×15=3

:)

4 0
3 years ago
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Ulleksa [173]

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4 years ago
A blackjack player at a Las Vegas casino learned that the house will provide a free room if play is for four hours at an average
marysya [2.9K]

Answer:

a) player’s expected payoff is $ 240

b) probability the player loses $1000 or more is 0.1788

c)  probability the player wins is 0.3557

d) probability of going broke is 0.0594

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Since there are 60 hands per hour and the player plays for four hours then the sample size is:

n = 60 * 4 = 240

The player’s strategy provides a probability of .49 of winning on any one hand so the probability of success is:

p = 0.49

a)

Solution:

Expected payoff is basically the expected mean

Since the bet is $50 so $50 is gained when the player wins a hand and $50 is lost when the player loses a hand. So

Expected loss =  μ

                        = ∑ x P(x)

                        = 50 * P(win) - 50 * P(lose)

                        = 50 * P(win) + (-50) * (1 - P(win))

                         = 50 * 0.49 - 50 * (1 - 0.49)

                        = 24.5 - 50 ( 0.51 )

                        = 24.5 - 25.5

                        = -1

Since n=240 and expected loss is $1 per hand then the expected loss in four hours is:

240 * 1 = $ 240

b)

Using normal approximation of binomial distribution:

n = 240

p = 0.49

q = 1 - p = 1 - 0.49 = 0.51

np = 240 * 0.49 = 117.6

nq = 240 * 0.51 = 122.5

both np and nq are greater than 5 so the binomial distribution can be approximated by normal distribution

Compute z-score:

z = x - np / √(np(1-p))

  = 110.5 - 117.6 / √117.6(1-0.49)

  = −7.1/√117.6(0.51)

  = −7.1/√59.976

  = −7.1/7.744417

  =−0.916789

Here the player loses 1000 or more when he loses at least 130 of 240 hands so the wins is 240-130 = 110

Using normal probability table:

P(X≤110) = P(X<110.5)

             = P(Z<-0.916)

             = 0.1788

c)

Using normal approximation of binomial distribution:

n = 240

p = 0.49

q = 1 - p = 1 - 0.49 = 0.51

np = 240 * 0.49 = 117.6

nq = 240 * 0.51 = 122.5

both np and nq are greater than 5 so the binomial distribution can be approximated by normal distribution

Compute z-score:

z = x - np / √(np(1-p))

  = 120.5 - 117.6 / √117.6(1-0.49)

  = 2.9/√117.6(0.51)

  = 2.9/√59.976

  = 2.9/7.744417

  =0.374463

Here the player wins when he wins at least 120 of 240 hands

Using normal probability table:

P(X>120) = P(X>120.5)

              = P(Z>0.3744)  

             =  1 - P(Z<0.3744)

             = 1 - 0.6443

             = 0.3557

d)

Player goes broke when he loses $1500

Using normal approximation of binomial distribution:

n = 240

p = 0.49

q = 1 - p = 1 - 0.49 = 0.51

np = 240 * 0.49 = 117.6

nq = 240 * 0.51 = 122.5

both np and nq are greater than 5 so the binomial distribution can be approximated by normal distribution

Compute z-score:

z = x - np / √(np(1-p))

  = 105.5 - 117.6 / √117.6(1-0.49)

  = -12.1/√117.6(0.51)

  = -12.1/√59.976

  = -12.1/7.744417

  =−1.562416

Here the player loses 1500 or more when he loses at least 135 of 240 hands so the wins is 240-135 = 105

Using normal probability table:

P(X≤105) = P(X<105.5)

             = P(Z<-1.562)

             = 0.0594

7 0
3 years ago
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