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Amiraneli [1.4K]
3 years ago
12

Demonstreaza in 20 de propoziti ca snoava pacala si zarzarele boerului e o snoava

Engineering
1 answer:
S_A_V [24]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

oops i dnt understand this language.

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A cylindrical drill with radius 4 is used to bore a hole through the center of a sphere of radius 5. Find the volume of the ring
ANTONII [103]

Answer:

The volume of the ring shaped solid that remains is 21 unit^3.

Explanation:

The total volume of the sphere is given as:

Volume of Sphere = (4/3)πr^3

where, r = radius of sphere

Volume of Sphere = (4/3)(π)(5)^3

Volume of Sphere = 523.6 unit^3

Now, we find the volume of sphere removed by the drill:

Volume removed = (Cross-sectional Area of drill)(Diameter of Sphere)

Volume removed = (πr²)(D)

where, r = radius of drill = 4

D = diameter of sphere = 2*5 = 10

Therefore,

Volume removed = (π)(4)²(10)

Volume removed = 502.6 unit^3

Therefore, the volume of ring shaped solid that remains will be the difference between the total volume of sphere, and the volume removed.

Volume of Ring = Volume of Sphere - Volume removed

Volume of Ring = 523.6 - 502.6

<u>Volume of Ring = 21 unit^3</u>

5 0
3 years ago
What is the never repeat rule
Soloha48 [4]
Don't repeat yourself (DRY, or sometimes do not repeat yourself) is a principle of software development aimed at reducing repetition of software patterns,[1] replacing it with abstractions or using data normalization to avoid redundancy.
4 0
3 years ago
What is the metal removal rate when a 2 in-diameter hole 3.5 in deep is drilled in 1020 steel at cutting speed of 120 fpm with a
Studentka2010 [4]

Answer:

a) the metal removal rate is 14.4 in³/min

b) the cutting time is 0.98 min

Explanation:

Given the data from the question

first we find the rpm for the spindle of the drilling tool, using the equation

Ns = 12V/πD

V is the cutting speed(120 fpm) and D is the diameter of the hole( 2 in)

so we substitute

Ns = 12 × 120 / π2

Ns = 1440 / 6.2831

Ns = 229.18 rmp

Now we find the metal removal rate using the equation

MRR = (πD²/4) Fr × Ns

Fr is the feed rate( 0.02 ipr ),

so we substitute

MRR = ((π × 2²)/4) × 0.02 × 229.18

MRR = 14.3998 ≈ 14.4 in³/min

Therefore the metal removal rate is 14.4 in³/min

Next we find the allowance for approach of the tip of the drill

A = D/2

A = 2/2

= 1 in

now find the time required to drill the hole

Tm = (L + A) / (Fr × Ns)

Lis the the depth of the hole( 3.5 in)

so we substitute our values

Tm = (3.5 + 1) / (0.02 × 229.18  )

Tm = 4.5 / 4.5836

Tm = 0.98 min

Therefore the cutting time is 0.98 min

8 0
2 years ago
What is the effect of the workpiece specific cutting energy on the cutting forces, and why?
ella [17]

Explanation:

Specific cutting energy:

   It the ratio of power required to cut the material to metal removal rate of material.If we take the force required to cut the material is F and velocity of cutting tool is V then cutting power will be the product of force and the cutting tool velocity.

Power P = F x V

Lets take the metal removal rate =MRR

Then the specific energy will be

    sp=\dfrac{F\times V}{MRR}

If we consider that metal removal rate and cutting tool velocity is constant then when we increases the cutting force then specific energy will also increase.

8 0
3 years ago
A pipeline (NPS = 14 in; schedule = 80) has a length of 200 m. Water (15℃) is flowing at 0.16 m3/s. What is the pipe head loss f
dangina [55]

Answer:

Head loss is 1.64

Explanation:

Given data:

Length (L) = 200 m

Discharge (Q) = 0.16 m3/s

According to table of nominal pipe size , for schedule 80 , NPS 14,  pipe has diameter (D)= 12.5 in or 31.8 cm 0.318 m

We know, head\ loss  = \frac{f L V^2}{( 2 g D)}

where, f = Darcy friction factor

V = flow velocity

g = acceleration due to gravity

We know, flow rate Q = A x V

solving for V

V = \frac{Q}{A}

    = \frac{0.16}{\frac{\pi}{4} (0.318)^2} = 2.015 m/s

obtained Darcy friction factor  

calculate Reynold number (Re) ,

Re = \frac{\rho V D}{\mu}

where,\rho = density of water

\mu = Dynamic viscosity of water at 15 degree  C = 0.001 Ns/m2

so reynold number is

Re = \frac{1000\times 2.015\times 0.318}{0.001}

            = 6.4 x 10^5

For Schedule 80 PVC pipes , roughness (e) is  0.0015 mm

Relative roughness (e/D) = 0.0015 / 318 = 0.00005

from Moody diagram, for Re = 640000 and e/D = 0.00005 , Darcy friction factor , f = 0.0126

Therefore head loss is

HL = \frac{0.0126 (200)(2.015)^2}{( 2 \times 9.81 \times 0.318)}

HL = 1.64 m

7 0
3 years ago
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