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Effectus [21]
2 years ago
8

Chipata Corporation applies manufacturing overhead to jobs on the basis of machine-hours. Chipata estimated 25,000 machine-hours

and $10,000 of manufacturing overhead cost for the year. During the year, Chipata incurred 26,200 machine-hours and $11,300 of manufacturing overhead. What was Chipata's underapplied or overapplied overhead for the year? Select one: a. $480 overapplied b. $820 underapplied c. $1,300 overapplied d. $1,300 underapplied
Business
1 answer:
serious [3.7K]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

b. $820 underapplied

Explanation:

As per the given question the solution of underapplied or overapplied overhead for the year is provided below:

here, we will find first predetermined overhead rate to reach the underapplied or overapplied overhead

Predetermined overhead rate = Estimated manufacturing cost ÷ Estimated machine hours

= $10,000 ÷ 25,000

= $0.40 per machine hour

Manufacturing overhead underapplied or overapplied = Actual manufacturing overhead - Applied manufacturing overhead

= $11,300 - (25,200 × $0.40)

= $11,300 - $10,480

Manufacturing overhead underapplied = $820

To reach Manufacturing overhead underapplied we simply put the values into formula.

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The following information is available for Cheyenne Corp..
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Answer:

(a) Earnings per share for 2022 and 2021 for Cheyenne are as follows:

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Current ratio for 2002 = 2.40

Current ratio for 2001 = 1.25

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Debt to assets ratio for 2001 = 41%

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Free cash flow for 2002 = $63,000

Free cash flow for 2001 = $44,000

Explanation:

(a) Compute earnings per share for 2022 and 2021 for Cheyenne. (Round Earnings per share to 2 decimal places, e.g. $2.78.)

These can be calculated using the following formula:

Earnings per share = (Net income - Preferred dividends) / Average shares outstanding ..................... (1)

Where;

Average common shares outstanding = (Common shares outstanding at beginning of year + Common shares outstanding at end of year) / 2

Using equation (1), we have:

Earnings per share for 2002 = (81,700 - 9,705) / ((42,000 + 77,000) / 2) = $1.21

Earnings per share for 2001 = (51,615 - 9,705) / ((31,700 + 44,500) / 2) = $1.10

(b) Compute the current ratio and debt to assets ratio for each year. (Round ratio answers to 2 decimal places, e.g. 15.25 and percentage answers to 0 decimal places, e.g. 15%.)

These can be calculated using the following formula:

Current ratio = Current assets / Current liabilities ................... (2)

Debt to assets ratio = (Total liabilities / Total assets) * 100 .............. (3)

Using equation (2), we have:

Current ratio for 2002 = 56,880 / 23,700 = 2.40

Current ratio for 2001 = 39,625 / 31,700 = 1.25

Using equation (3), we have:

Debt to assets ratio for 2002 = (70,180 / 242,000) * 100 = 29%

Debt to assets ratio for 2001 = (84,870 / 207,000) * 100 = 41%

(c) Compute free cash flow for each year.

These can be calculated using the following formula:

Free cash flow = Net cash provided by operating activities - Expenditures on property, plant, and equipment .................(4)

Using equation (4), we have:

Free cash flow for 2002 = $91,700 - $28,700 = $63,000

Free cash flow for 2001 = $57,700 - $13,700 = $44,000

7 0
2 years ago
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