Answer and Explanation:
The computation of the weighted-average number of shares outstanding in each cases is as follows:
a. At the time when the shares are issued at cash
= (303,000 × 12 ÷ 12) + (31,200 × 8 ÷ 12)
= 303,000 + 20,800
= 323,800 shares
b. At the time when the shares are issued in the stock dividend
= (303,000 × 12 ÷ 12) + (29,700 × 12 ÷ 12)
= 303,000 + 29,700
= 332,700 shares
Answer:
The answer is C: Hyperinflation
Explanation:
Hyperinflation is high and accelerating form of inflation. It results in quick decline of the local currency`s real value. It also leads to increased prices of all goods and consumables
From the data,
In June 1922, 1 german Mark was equal to 0.003125 USD (1/320)
Whereas in December, 1922, the same german Mark was equal to 0.000125 USD. (1/8000)
Answer:
Using Traditional allocation method
Allocation rate per unit
=<u> Budgeted overhead</u>
Budgeted direct labour hours
Brass
Overhead allocation rate
= <u>$47,500</u>
700 hours
= $67.86 per direct labour hour
Gold
= <u>$47,500</u>
1,200 hours
= $39.58 per direct labour hour
Using activity-based costing
Brass
Allocation rate for material cost pool
= <u>$12,500</u>
400
= $31.25 per material moved
Gold
Allocation rate for material cost pool
= <u>$12,500</u>
100
= $125 per material moved
Brass
Allocation rate for machine set-up pool
= <u>$35,000</u>
400
= $87.50
Gold
Allocation rate for machine set-up pool
= <u>$35,000</u>
600
= $58.33
Explanation:
Using traditional allocation method, the overheads for material cost pool and machine set-up pool will be added. The overhead allocation rate per unit is the division of total overhead by the direct labour hours for each product.
Using activity-based costing, the material cost pool overhead will be divided by the material moved for each product in order to obtain allocation rate for each product.
The allocation rate for machine set-up pool is obtained by dividing the machine set-up overhead by the number of machine set-up for each product.
Answer:
D. Date Accounts and Explanation Debit Credit Interest Expense 21,385 Discount on Bonds Payable 235 Cash 21,150
Explanation:
The journal entry is shown below:
Interest expense $21,385
To Discount on bond payable $235
To Cash $21,150
(Being the interest expense is recorded)
The computation is given below:
The interest expense is
= $470,000 ÷ 100 × 91 × 10% ÷ 12 months × 6 months
= $21,385
The cash is
= $470,000 × 9% ÷ 12 months × 6 months
= $21,150
And, the remaining balance is credited to discount on note payable
We simply debited the interest expense as it increased the expenses and credited the cash as it reduced the assets plus the remaining amount is credited to discount on bond payable
