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GrogVix [38]
3 years ago
6

Please Help image below with question

Mathematics
2 answers:
djyliett [7]3 years ago
5 0
I think it’s 128 or 64
Bingel [31]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

402 cm.

Step-by-step explanation:

To find this, we will need to calculate the circumference of the reel. We can do this using the formula C = d\pi.

Since the radius is 4 cm, the diameter is 8 cm. Put this into the equation to solve for the circumference:

C = 8\pi  = 25.12

Since the reel spun 16 times, simply multiply the circumference by 16 to get:

25.12 × 16 = 401.92

≈ 402 cm.

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WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST anitas and caseys bills do not vary from month to month. anita pays 80 more than casey does each month. ove
Mrac [35]

Answer:

1520/4=380 per month

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
2 years ago
2. Two puppies together weigh 22 kilograms 300 grams. If one
monitta

Answer:

B = 12800 grams or 12kg 800 grams.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the two puppies be A and B respectively.

Translating the word problem into an algebraic expression, we have;

A + B = 22kg 300g

A = 9kg 500g

Conversion;

1 Kilograms = 1000 grams.

9kg 500g = 9*1000 + 500 = 9500 grams

22kg 300g = 22*1000 + 300 = 22300 g

Substituting into the above formula, we have;

9500 + B = 22300

B = 22300 - 9500

B = 12800 grams or 12kg 800 grams

6 0
3 years ago
Theoretical probability is the same thing as experimental probability.<br><br> True<br> False
Archy [21]
Theoretical probability<span> is what we expect to happen, where </span>experimental probability<span> is what actually happens when we try it out. So the answer is FALSE.</span>
6 0
3 years ago
Please help! im on a timer
pav-90 [236]

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
What is a counterexample to this claim? Dividing a number by 2 always results in a smaller number.
In-s [12.5K]

Given:

Dividing a number by 2 always results in a smaller number.

To find:

The counterexample to the given claim.

Solution:

If 0 is divided by is divided by any non-zero real number a, then

\dfrac{0}{a}=0

Let us consider the unknown number be 0. Then dividing a number by 2, we get

\dfrac{0}{2}=0

Here, the result is not a smaller number because 0=0.

Therefore, the counterexample to the given claim is "Dividing 0 by 2".

7 0
3 years ago
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