The existence of pre-tax cost of debt and post-tax cost of debt is due
to the acknoledgement of the tax benefit from issuing debt.There is no
tax benefit from paying divdends,so it makes no sense talking about
pre-tax,post-tax cost of equity for a firm.When you think about cash
flow to equity you can only assume that the taxes owed by the company
have already been paid.Now, the taxation over the income of the
shareholder is a whole different issue that does not take place in this
discussion,since it is not taken in consideration either in cost of
equity or cost of debt.
Answer:
a. is always the middle value of replacement cost, net realizable value, and net realizable value less a normal profit margin.
Explanation:
As we know that inventory will be recorded at cost or market value whichever is lower. But in the given case, the replacement cost would be recorded at higher values and lesser values. Higher values represent the Net realizable value whereas the lesser values represent the net realizable value less than the normal profit margin.
And if the replacement cost lies in this range than it represents the designated market value.
Hence, option a is correct.
In 2016, Bubble Inc. had net income of $500,000, assets of $5,000,000, sales of $2,000,000, and debt of 2,000,000. In 2017, Bubb
victus00 [196]
Answer:
No
Explanation:
The computation of the return of assets is calculated by applying the formula which is shown below:
Return on assets = Net income ÷ assets
In 2016, the return on assets would be equal to
= $500,000 ÷ $5,000,000
= 0.1
In 2017, the return on assets would be equal to
= $600,000 ÷ $7,000,000
= 0.085
By comparing the return on assets for both the years, we get to know that the return on assets is declining from 2016 to 2017
Answer: will increase but this will not affect living standards
Explanation:
GDP is sometimes called an incomplete measure because there are certain measures that it does not include such as the black market.
If firms in the black market shift to the formal sector, they will now be included in GDP which means that GDP will increase.
The living standards of people in the country will probably not change however because the firms involved were simply shifting sectors and are not said to be more or less prosperous as a result. Assuming they remained the same, nothing changes for living standards.
Answer:
The correct answer is Spot market.
Explanation:
The spot market or spot market is one in which both the transaction and the settlement of an operation coincide on the same date. Although it is considered cash market when delivery occurs up to a maximum of 2 days later.
In spot markets, transactions are usually settled within a day or two after the date of purchase / sale. This is what is understood as a settlement in D + 1 or D + 2. The transactions are also closed at the current price on the asset in question that exists at the time of the transaction. This is one of the main differences between the cash market and the futures market.
