Answer:
n = 1 second formula
n = 0 first formula
Step-by-step explanation:
I answer this in the other question you put, here it is again.
This is easy to get. We know the sequence cause it follows a pattern of 8, so let's try some values of n from 1 to 4, to get those numbers with the first formula:
n = 1,2,3,4
f(1) = 8(1) + 2 = 10
f(2) = 8(2) + 2 = 18
f(3) = 8(3) + 2 = 26
f(4) = 8(4) + 2 = 34
As you can see, with the first formula, the first term is 10, and not 2. The only way to get 2 with n = 1 is with the second formula:
f(1) = 8(1) - 6 = 2
f(2) = 8(2) - 6 = 10
f(3) = 8(3) - 6 = 18
f(4) = 8(4) - 6 = 26
With n = 1, the second formula was better and correct.
The first formula could be right only beggining with n = 0. Here is the proof:
f(0) = 8(0) + 2 = 2
Basically, we need to find what has a probability of 2/9
Peanuts:6/6+4+3+5=6/18=1/3
Rasins:4/18=2/9
Cranberries:3/18=1/6
Chocolate chips:5/18
The answer should be raisins
Answer:
414.72
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
the first 1
Step-by-step explanation:
