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3 years ago

What is the difference between reward management and compensation management

Business

1 answer:

Genrish500 [490]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

Compensation management is the act of distributing some type of monetary value to an employee for their work by means of the company's policy or procedures. ... Reward management consists of analysing and controlling employee remuneration, compensation and all of the other benefits for the employees

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When your music teacher asks that you increase the decibels in a particular part of your performance, he is specifically request

REY [17]

Loudness. Hope this helps.

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3 years ago

A type of real estate investment that offers diversification and liquidity and that is similar in form to a mutual fund is calle

Alex777 [14]

Answer: REIT

Explanation: A real estate investment trust, REIT, can be defined as an investment firm specialized in securities related to companies operating in real estate industries.

Such trust pool the money from investors and invest it in real estate securities. REIT gives the investors the exposure of real estate in their portfolios and invests like mutual funds.

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3 years ago

What political reasons Government intervention in markets

Varvara68 [4.7K]

Answer:

The main reasons for policy intervention by the government are:

To correct for market failures.

To achieve a more equitable distribution of income and wealth.

To improve the performance of the economy.

Explanation:

To correct for market failures: This is achieve by creating regulation institutions for the most important sectors in any given economy e.g. Federal Reserve, Treasury Department

To achieve a more equitable distribution of income and wealth: This is the aim of a develop economy to allocate the resources where needed and for that some countries rely in the government capability to prevent Monopoly creation or to protect its Internal Labor market.

To improve the performance of the economy.: In order to meet the economical agenda of any given government the institutions use variation on the interest rate, the government expenditure or the tax policies.

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3 years ago

Parker Pharmaceuticals is a corporation that employs over 400 workers. As the firm continues to grow, the need for discipline am

Virty [35]

Answer:

The following best supports a decision to use the progressive disciplinary action approach:

B) Parker wants an informal procedure for disciplining employees.

Explanation:

A disciplinary procedure is the way your employer deals with discipline when they believe that your conduct or performance is not up to the expected standard. Disciplinary procedures may involve something as simple as an informal chat, and escalate to involve letters, meetings and appeals

Informal disciplinary actions include: oral or written admonishments; letters of counseling, caution, instruction or warning, as well as letters of requirement.

These are the steps of progressive discipline actions:

Step 1: Verbal Counseling(s) A verbal counseling is generally the first step of progressive discipline.

Step 2: Written Warning(s) A written warning is generally the second step of progressive discipline.

Step 3: Performance Improvement Plan (PIP).

Step 4: Termination of Employment.

In most cases, it is far better for the employer to resolve issues informally wherever possible. Depending on what the issue is, it may be appropriate to have an informal chat or verbal warning with someone rather than going through the process of issuing a formal warning.

The purpose of an informal meeting is to discuss issues which would not have an appropriate place in a formal meeting. They may be designed to make one of the participants feel more at ease and more free to speak their mind than they would in a more formal setting.

4 0

3 years ago

Exxon has the following capital structure: the firm issued 6 million shares of common stock with the stock price in c), the firm

lesantik [10]

Answer: some data is missing but I was able to find it online and that helped me resolve the problem .

answer : WACC = 15.76%

Explanation:

Given that the common stock price = $9 ( as seen in option C not attached above )

value of common stock = $9 * 6 * 10^6 = $54,000,000

cost of common equity = 10.93%

current preferred stock price = $6

value of preferred stock = $6 * 1,500,000 = $9,000,000

hence the cost of the preferred equity = $4.5 / $6 = 0.75 = 75%

interest rate of debts = 6.5%

value of debit = $25,000,000

Corporate tax rate = 25%

∴ The cost of the debit after tax = 6.5% * ( 1 - 25)% = 4.88%

The Total value = value of common stock + value of preferred stock + value of debit

= 54,000,000 + 9,000,000 + 25,000,00 = $88,000,000

<u>Finally the weighted average cost of capital ( WACC )</u>

[weight of debt * cost of debt after tax ] + [ weight of common equity * cost of common equity ] + [weight of preferred * cost of preferred ]

= [ (25/88) * 4.875 ] + [(54/88) * 10.933] + [ (9/88) * 75 ]

= 15.76%

3 0

3 years ago