2 years ago

HELP ASAP PLEASEEEEEEEEEE HELPPP

Mathematics

2 answers:

grin007 [14]2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

6/36 as simplified as 1/6

Step-by-step explanation:

Allisa [31]2 years ago

4 0

Answer:

1/6

Step-by-step explanation:

your welcome, trust me

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g find all the values of p for which the following functions are improperly integrable on the indicated domain. be sure to prove

mel-nik [20]

Answer:

1. In order to make the integral improper $p$ must be 1.

2. In order to make the integral improper $p$ must be 1.

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the rules of integration we get that for

$f(x)= \frac{1}{x^p}$

$\int\limits_{0}^{1} \frac{1}{x^p} \, dx = \frac{x^{1-p}}{(1-p)} \, |\limits_{0}^{1} = \frac{1}{1-p} - 0 = \frac{1}{1-p}$

Therefore in order to make that integral improper $p$ must be 1.

If p = 1 then you would have a 1/0 indeterminate form.

2. Using the of integration, specifically substitution we get that for

$f(x) = \frac{1}{x(ln(x)^p)}$

$\int\limits_{e}^{\infty} \frac{1}{x(ln(x))^p} \, dx = \frac{(ln(x))^{1-p}}{1-p} \, |\limits_{e}^{\infty}$

For $p \geq 1$ we would have

$\int\limits_{e}^{\infty} \frac{1}{x(ln(x))^p} \, dx = \frac{1}{p-1}$

And the problem is the same. If $p=1$ we would have a 1/0 indeterminate form.

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The answer of this question is B.

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