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GREYUIT [131]
3 years ago
14

Which equation represents a nonlinear function?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Hoochie [10]3 years ago
5 0
I think the answer is B because that is the only answer that could make sense.
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PLEASE HELP ASAP!! Please don't look up the top speed of these animals it doesn't work that way I tried.
SVEN [57.7K]
A)51.6666666667
B)34.8
D)27
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4 years ago
Given , which of the following describes the boundary line and shading for the second inequality in the system?
ollegr [7]

Answer:

dashed line, shade above

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3 years ago
Kendrick is using the quadratic formula to solve the equation . Which statement best describes Kendrick’s work?
geniusboy [140]

Answer: (–4)2 – 4(1)(0).

Step-by-step explanation:

The expression under the radical is correct as written. The expression under the radical should be –42 – 4(1). The expression under the radical should be –42 – 4(1)(0). The expression under the radical should be (–4)2 – 4(1)(0).

6 0
3 years ago
Four times a number, minus 8, is equal to three times the number plus 4
Eva8 [605]

Answer:

4n-8=3n+4

Step-by-step explanation:

4n-8=3n+4

   +8      +8

4n=3n+12

-3n  -3n

n=12

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Color-blindness is any abnormality of the color vision system that causes a person to see colors differently than most people or
Veronika [31]

Answer:

Correct option is (d): Neither X nor Y can be well-approximated by a normal random variable.

Step-by-step explanation:

The sample size of males having color-blindness is, n (X) = 20.

The sample size of females having color-blindness is, n (Y) = 40.

The proportion of males that suffer from color-blindness is, P (X) = 0.08.

The proportion of females that suffer from color-blindness is, P (Y) = 0.01.

Now both the random variables <em>X</em> and <em>Y</em> follows a Binomial distribution,

X\sim Bin(20, 0.08)\\Y\sim Bin(40, 0.01)

A normal distribution is used to approximate the binomial distribution if the sample is large, i.e <em>n</em> ≥ 30 and the probability of success is very close to 0.50.

Also if <em>np</em> ≥ 10 and <em>n</em> (1 - <em>p</em>) ≥ 10, the binomial distribution can be approximated by the normal distribution.

<u>For the sample of men (X):</u>

np=20\times0.08=1.610

In this case neither <em>n</em> > 30 nor <em>p</em> is close to 0.50.

And <em>np</em> < 10.

Thus, the random variable <em>X</em> cannot be approximated by the normal distribution.

<u>For the sample of men (Y):</u>

np=40\times0.01=0.410

In this case <em>n</em> > 30 but <em>p</em> is not close to 0.50.

And <em>np</em> < 10.

Thus, the random variable <em>Y</em> cannot be approximated by the normal distribution.

Thus, both the random variables cannot be approximated by the normal distribution.

The correct option is (d).

3 0
3 years ago
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