Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
50 dollars = ∉34
∉1 = Rs 150
Rs 382800 / 150 Rs per ∉ = 382800/150 ∉
=2552 ∉
50 dollars = ∉34 so 50/34 dollars = ∉
2552 ∉ × 50/34 dollar per ∉ = in the units the ∉ cancel out
∉ × dollar/∉ = dollars
(2552 × 50) / 34 = 3752.94 dollars <------------------
Here is another way of looking at the answer...........
Rs 382800 × 1∉/150 Rs × 50 dollars/34 ∉ = note how the units cancel
= 382800 × (1/150) × (50/34) Rs × ∉/Rs × dollars/∉
= 3,752.94 dollars leaving only dollars in the numerator
A country's income distribution is the <em>distribution of total GDP among the total population</em>
<em>hope it helps</em>
Answer:
7 3/20
Step-by-step explanation:
I took the quiz.
Answer:
70%
Step-by-step explanation:
Multiply by ten and you get your percent
Answer:
The integral is equal to 
for an arbitrary constant C.
Step-by-step explanation:
a) If 
then 
so the integral becomes 
. (the constant of integration is actually 5C, but this doesn't affect the result when taking derivatives, so we still denote it by C)
b) In this case 
hence 
. We rewrite the integral as 
.
c) We use the trigonometric identity 
is part b). The value of the integral is 
. which coincides with part a)
Note that we just replaced 5+C by C. This is because we are asked for an indefinite integral. Each value of C defines a unique antiderivative, but we are not interested in specific values of C as this integral is the family of all antiderivatives. Part a) and b) don't coincide for specific values of C (they would if we were working with a definite integral), but they do represent the same family of functions.
