Answer:
Explanation:
c. Determine the amount of prepaid insurance the company will report on its pro forma balance sheet at the end of the fourth quarter.
The answer is 5400 because "at the end of the 4th quarter is only consists of 3 months (oct-dec). By taking the total amount you paid for all 6 months minus what you have to pay for 3 months.
Answer:
b. Cash received from customers at the time services were provided.
Explanation:
When a business recieves payment for goods or services rendered it has earned revenue.
Revenue is defined as the income that a business generates from normal business activities such as sales of goods and services.
It is also called sales turnover.
Answer:
Cruz Company
Indicating whether to (a) record a liability, (b) disclose in notes, or (c) have no disclosure.
Transaction Remark
1. Guarantee of supplier's debt (c) have no disclosure
2. Damages for disgruntled employee (b) disclose in notes
Explanation:
When it is not probable that the supplier whose debt is guaranteed by Cruz will default on the debt, there is no need to make a disclosure since probable liability is not accruing to Cruz. But with the legal case of a disgruntled employee, Cruz should disclose the information in a note. It can only be recorded as a liability when the amount of the damages can be reasonably estimated.
Answer:
Turk should purchase Machine B
Explanation:
<u>Our first step</u> will be to multiply each cashflow by the factor.
Then we will add them to get the present value of the cash flow
![\left[\begin{array}{cccc}-&A&factor&Present \: Value\\Year \: 1&5,000&0.8696&4,348\\Year \: 2&4,000&0.7561&3,024.4\\Year \: 3&2,000&0.6567&1,313.4\\Total&11000&-&8,685.8\\\end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bcccc%7D-%26A%26factor%26Present%20%5C%3A%20Value%5C%5CYear%20%5C%3A%201%265%2C000%260.8696%264%2C348%5C%5CYear%20%5C%3A%202%264%2C000%260.7561%263%2C024.4%5C%5CYear%20%5C%3A%203%262%2C000%260.6567%261%2C313.4%5C%5CTotal%2611000%26-%268%2C685.8%5C%5C%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D)
Then we subtract the machine cost:
8,685.8 - 9,000 = -314.2 This Machine has a negative value. It is not convinient to purchase this machine.
![\left[\begin{array}{cccc}-&B&factor&Present \: Value\\Year \: 1&1,000&0.8696&869.6\\Year \: 2&2,000&0.7561&1,512.2\\Year \: 3&11,000&0.6567&7,223.7\\Total&14,000&-&9,605.5\\\end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bcccc%7D-%26B%26factor%26Present%20%5C%3A%20Value%5C%5CYear%20%5C%3A%201%261%2C000%260.8696%26869.6%5C%5CYear%20%5C%3A%202%262%2C000%260.7561%261%2C512.2%5C%5CYear%20%5C%3A%203%2611%2C000%260.6567%267%2C223.7%5C%5CTotal%2614%2C000%26-%269%2C605.5%5C%5C%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D)
9,605.5 - 9,000 = 605.5 This machine NPV is positive it is convient.
Answer:
Pepsi got into the Indian market market space on time after Coco-cola introduced their product and left. Pepsi came and accumulated alot of market shares which is an advantage for them for early timing and entry. Pepsi get an early entry while the market is developing and grew with the development of the market, thereby accumulating a lot of market shares. and that is an advantage of early entry.
Coca-Cola came back to Indian market space after 15 years, at that time, Coca-Cola would not take market share away from Pepsi companies because the beverage market was growing consistency from year to year with the early birds in the market space. This is disadvantage of Coca-Cola.
