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3 years ago

I need help! Please?

Mathematics

2 answers:

likoan [24]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

2.59

Step-by-step explanation:

Simple! You must divide the number of pounds by the cost to get the price for 1 pound. Or, set up a proportional table:

7.77 = x amount of dollars

3 = 1

Or:

Divide 7.77 by 3:

7.77 / 3 =2.59.

joja [24]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

Its a

Step-by-step explanation:

Just divide any one of the cost with the pounds. Ex. 20.72/8=2.59

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3 years ago

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vekshin1

Answer:

x=4

Step-by-step explanation:

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7 0

3 years ago

The highest possible z-score that is still in the bottom 95% of the systolic blood pressure distribution is z =−1.645 . Use this

lawyer [7]

Answer:

(1) The value of X is, 151.13.

This score X, is the 95th percentile of systolic blood pressure scores among women. The percentile rank of this score is 95.

(2) The percentage of women have systolic blood pressure in the range 140 to 159 is 9.01%.

(3) The percentage of women having systolic blood pressure below 90 is 21.19%.

Step-by-step explanation:

The random variable X is defined as the systolic blood pressure of women.

The distribution of X is, N (110, 25²).

(1)

The value of z-score that is in the bottom 95% is, 1.645.

Compute the value of X as follows:

$z=\frac{X-\mu}{\sigma}\\1.645=\frac{X-110}{25}\\X=110+(1.645\times 25)\\X=151.125\\\approx151.13$

The value of X is, 151.13.

This score X, is the 95th percentile of systolic blood pressure scores among women. The percentile rank of this score is 95.

(2)

Compute the probability of X between 140 and 159 as follows:

$P(140$

The percentage of systolic blood pressure between 140 and 159 is,

0.0901 × 100 = 9.01%

Thus, the percentage of women have systolic blood pressure in the range 140 to 159 is 9.01%.

(3)

Compute the probability of X below 90 as follows:

$P(X$

The percentage of women having systolic blood pressure below 90 is,

0.2119 × 100 = 21.19%.

Thus, the percentage of women having systolic blood pressure below 90 is 21.19%.

6 0

4 years ago

Solve and graph the inequality |5 – v| < 6.

Jet001 [13]

5 - v < 6, 5 - v >= 0

-5 + v < 6, 5 - v < 0

1) - v < 6 -5 (move 5 to the right side and then multiply by -1 both sides of the inequality)
v > -1 (don't forget that here v <= 5)

2) v < 6 + 5 (move -5 to the right side)
v < 11 (here v should be more than 5)

so from 1) you get that v is from -1 to 5 inclusive (-1;5]
and from 2) you get that v is from 5 to 11 (5;11)

so by adding up results from 1) and 2) you get v is (-1; 11)

answer: (-1; 11)

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3 years ago

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Pavlova-9 [17]

Answer:

The answer is option D.

20 x⁴ - 39 x³+ 26 x² - 6 x

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4 years ago