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Zanzabum
3 years ago
7

Adele correctly calculates the measure of angle w shown in the figure

Mathematics
1 answer:
irakobra [83]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: the answer is 40

Step-by-step explanation:

first of all look at the lins and you can see that the lines are the same  

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Arianna takes a sheet of paper and makes a diagonal cut from one corner to the opposite corner, making two triangles. The cut sh
Serjik [45]

Answer:

9

Step-by-step explanation:

The length of the paper , x, can be obtained using Pythagoras :

Width = 12 ; length = 15

x² = 15² - 12²

x² = 225 - 144

x² = 81

x = sqrt(81)

x = 9

Hence, length of the paper = 9 inches

7 0
3 years ago
Pls help!! given: angles 1 and 2 are a linear pair prove that x=11
FinnZ [79.3K]

Step-by-step explanation:

2. Given: Angles 1 and 2 are a linear pair. Prove that x = 11 ma m = 11x-6 m2 = 4x+21 Statements Reasons 1) Angles 1 and 2 are a linear pair. 1) Given 2) Angles 1 and 2 are 2) Linear Pair Postulate supplementary 3) mZ1 + m2 = 180° 3) 4) 11x - 6 + 4x + 21 = 180 4) 5) 15x + 15 = 180 5) 6) 15x = 165 6) 7) x = 11 7)

I am not sure about my answer i dont want u to get wrong this is all i know i hope it was helpful

6 0
3 years ago
4 more than the product of 8 and n
Irina18 [472]

Answer:

the anser should be 12 because 8+4=12

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
4 years ago
A particular concentration of a chemical found in polluted water has been found to be lethal to 40% of the crayfish that are exp
Jet001 [13]

Answer:

a) P(X=13)=(24C13)(0.4)^{13} (1-0.4)^{24-13}=0.0608

P(X=17)=(24C17)(0.4)^{17} (1-0.4)^{24-17}=0.0017

P(X=13 U X=17) = 0.0608+0.0017=0.0624

b) P(X \geq 17)=0.000427

c) P(X \geq 16)= 1-0.000427=0.9996

d) E(X)= np = 22*0.4=8.8

e) Var(X) = np(1-p)= 22*0.4*(1-0,4)=5.28

Step-by-step explanation:

1) Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

2) Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=24, p=0.4)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

3) Part a

P(X=13)=(22C13)(0.4)^{13} (1-0.4)^{22-13}=0.0336

P(X=17)=(22C17)(0.4)^{17} (1-0.4)^{22-17}=0.00035

P(X=13 U X=17) = 0.0336+0.00035=0.0340

4) Part b

P(X \geq 17)=P(X=17)+P(X=18)+P(X=19)+P(X=20)+P(X=21)+P(X=22)

P(X=17)=(22C17)(0.4)^{17} (1-0.4)^{22-17}=0.00035

P(X=18)=(22C18)(0.4)^{18} (1-0.4)^{22-18}=0.0000651

P(X=19)=(22C19)(0.4)^{19} (1-0.4)^{22-19}=0.00000914

P(X=20)=(22C20)(0.4)^{20} (1-0.4)^{22-20}=0.000000914

P(X=21)=(22C21)(0.4)^{21} (1-0.4)^{22-21}=5.81x10^{-8}

P(X=22)=(22C22)(0.4)^{22} (1-0.4)^{22-22}=1.76x10^{-9}

P(X \geq 17)=0.000427

5) Part c

P(X \leq 16)=1-P(X>16)=1-P(X\geq 17) = 1-[P(X=17)+P(X=18)+P(X=19)+P(X=20)+P(X=21)+P(X=22)]

P(X \geq 16)= 1-0.000427=0.9996

6) Part d

The expected value is:

E(X)= np = 22*0.4=8.8

7) Part e

The variance is given by:

Var(X) = np(1-p)= 22*0.4*(1-0,4)=5.28

3 0
3 years ago
Construct a line that is perpendicular to
kodGreya [7K]
1) The line will need to be vertical down the point of x, meaning draw a line down point x. Perpendicular lines look similar to t’s
2.) Same thing, just draw a line through point O and the line. They should look similar to t’s
Hope this helped!! I understand math can get really hard, soon it’ll all be over :)
5 0
3 years ago
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