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dusya [7]
3 years ago
8

Which of the following represents the set in words?

Mathematics
1 answer:
jekas [21]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

It's actually: None of these.

Think about it: In this case we have an inequality, of x ≤ 0.

This basically means, that x can be less than OR equal to 0.

But 0 is neither negative or positive, so we can eliminate the following answer choices:

- all positive integers

- all negative real numbers

- all positive real numbers

- all negative integers

And we are left with "None of these"

Let me know if this helps!

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Evaluate ㏒ b 1, b > 0.
IrinaVladis [17]

Answer:

The solution is 1.

Step-by-step explanation:

Logarithm:

Suppose we have a logarithmic equation in the following format:

\log_{a} b = c

It means that:

a_c = b

In this question:

\log_{b} 1 = x

Which means that:

b^x = 1

Every number, elevated to 0, is 1. So

b^0 = 1

Which means that the solution is x = 1

7 0
3 years ago
[50 points!]
marshall27 [118]

Answer:

1/3

Explanation:

P(Freshman | Boy)

  • Freshman = 4
  • Boy = 12

⇒ Probability = Number of favorable outcomes ÷ Total number of possible outcomes

  • P(Freshman | Boy) = freshman/total boys
  • P(Freshman | Boy) = 4/12
  • P(Freshman | Boy) = 1/3
4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Y - 5 = 3/2(x+2) using that for a fraction write an equation in sloped intercept form
Licemer1 [7]
In slope intercept form this is equal to y=3/2x+8. If you want it in decimal form it would be y=1.5x+8.
8 0
3 years ago
Stacy uses a spinner with six equal sections numbered 2, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 to play a game. Write a probability model for this ex
allsm [11]

Answer:

We estimate to have 8.33 times the number 6 in 50 trials.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let us consider a success to get a 6. In this case, note that the probability of having a 6 in one spin is 1/6. We can consider the number of 6's in 50 spins to be a binomial random variable. Then, let X to be the number of trials we get a 6 out of 50 trials. Then, we have the following model.

P(X=k) = \binom{50}{k}(\frac{1}{6})^k(\frac{5}{6})^{50-k}

We will estimate the number of times that she spins a 6 as the expected value of this random variable.

Recall that if we have X as a binomial random variable of n trials with a probability of success of p, then it's expected value is np.

Then , in this case, with n=50 and p=1/6 we expect to have \frac{50}{6} number of times of having a 6, which is 8.33.

6 0
3 years ago
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The graph shown represents the equation y=3(1/3)^x
musickatia [10]
Statements #1-4 are all true. Statement 5 is false due to the fact that when x = 0, y = 3. 
3 0
3 years ago
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