Answer:
The solution is 1.
Step-by-step explanation:
Logarithm:
Suppose we have a logarithmic equation in the following format:

It means that:

In this question:

Which means that:

Every number, elevated to 0, is 1. So

Which means that the solution is 
Answer:
1/3
Explanation:
P(Freshman | Boy)
⇒ Probability = Number of favorable outcomes ÷ Total number of possible outcomes
- P(Freshman | Boy) = freshman/total boys
In slope intercept form this is equal to y=3/2x+8. If you want it in decimal form it would be y=1.5x+8.
Answer:
We estimate to have 8.33 times the number 6 in 50 trials.
Step-by-step explanation:
Let us consider a success to get a 6. In this case, note that the probability of having a 6 in one spin is 1/6. We can consider the number of 6's in 50 spins to be a binomial random variable. Then, let X to be the number of trials we get a 6 out of 50 trials. Then, we have the following model.

We will estimate the number of times that she spins a 6 as the expected value of this random variable.
Recall that if we have X as a binomial random variable of n trials with a probability of success of p, then it's expected value is np.
Then , in this case, with n=50 and p=1/6 we expect to have
number of times of having a 6, which is 8.33.
Statements #1-4 are all true. Statement 5 is false due to the fact that when x = 0, y = 3.