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vlabodo [156]
3 years ago
13

Which fraction is equivalent to 12/27? help

Mathematics
2 answers:
Mkey [24]3 years ago
7 0

\begin{gathered}\dfrac{12}{27}=\dfrac{12:3}{27:3}=\dfrac{4}{9}\\\\\dfrac{12}{27}=\dfrac{12\cdot2}{27\cdot2}=\dfrac{24}{54}\\\\\dfrac{12}{27}=\dfrac{4}{9}=\dfrac{4\cdot2}{9\cdot2}=\dfrac{8}{18}\\\vdots\end{gathered}

<h3>Hope This Helps You</h3>
valina [46]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

\huge\boxed{Answer\hookleftarrow}

Fractions equivalent to \frac{12}{27} are :-

<h2><u>1st Fraction :-</u></h2>

\frac{12 \div 3}{27 \div 3}   \\ =  \frac{4}{9}

<h2><u>2nd Fraction :-</u></h2>

\frac{12 \times 2}{27 \times 2}  \\  =  \frac{24}{54}

<h2><u>3</u><u>r</u><u>d</u><u> </u><u>Fraction</u><u> </u><u>:</u><u>-</u></h2>

\frac{12 \times 3}{27 \times 3}  \\  =  \frac{36}{81}

✐ 3 fractions equivalent to \frac{12}{27} are ⇻ \frac{4}{9} , \:  \frac{24}{54} , \:  \frac{36}{81}

ʰᵒᵖᵉ ⁱᵗ ʰᵉˡᵖˢ

# ꧁❣ RainbowSalt2²2² ࿐

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Answer:

(-138) is the answer.

Step-by-step explanation:

Perfect square numbers between 15 and 25 inclusive are 16 and 25.

Sum of perfect square numbers 16 and 25 = 16 + 25 = 41

Sum of the remaining numbers between 15 and 25 inclusive means sum of the numbers from 17 to 24 plus 15.

Since sum of an arithmetic progression is defined by the expression

S_{n}=\frac{n}{2}[2a+(n-1)d]

Where n = number of terms

a = first term of the sequence

d = common difference

S_{8}=\frac{8}{2} [2\times 17+(8-1)\times 1]

   = 4(34 + 7)

   = 164

Sum of 15 + S_{8} = 15 + 164 = 179

Now the difference between 41 and sum of perfect squares between 15 and 25 inclusive = 41-179

= -138

Therefore, answer is (-138).

7 0
3 years ago
A bag contains 35 coins, some dimes and some quarters. The total amount of money in the bag is $4.85. How many dimes and how man
miskamm [114]

Answer:

9 quarters and 26 dimes

Step-by-step explanation:

your welcome :)

5 0
1 year ago
I need help pls due tomorrow pls I just need part B done plsss
lara [203]

Part A

1 day = 1/4 hours of practice

7 days = 7/4 hours of practice (multiply both sides by 7)

1 week = 7/4 hours of practice

1 week = (4+3)/4 hours of practice

1 week = (4+3)/4 hours of practice

1 week = (4/4)+(3/4) hours of practice

1 week = 1+(3/4) hours of practice

1 week = 1 & 3/4 hours of practice

side note: 1 & 3/4 = 1.75

=======================================

Part B

Take the result from part A, and multiply it with 60

So we'll have 60 times 1&3/4 on the left side on the first line, then 60*(1+3/4) on the right side of this same line.

The rest of the lines look like this

(60*1) + (60*3/4)

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8 0
3 years ago
Based on the 2009 season, the Texas Rangers have a winning percentage of .533. Use the binomial model to find the probability th
Naddik [55]

Answer:

0.128

Step-by-step explanation:

We know the probability for any event X is given by,

P(X=x)=\binom{n}{x}\times p^{n-x}\times q^{x},

where p is the probability of success and q is the probability of failure.

Here, we are given that p = 0.533.

Since, we have that q = 1 - p

i.e. q = 1 - 0.533

i.e. q = 0.467

It is required to find the probability of 4 wins in the next 5 games i.e. P(X=4) when n = 5.

Substituting the values in the above formula, we get,

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i.e. P(X=4)=5 \times 0.533 \times 0.048

i.e. i.e. P(X=4)=0.128

Hence, the probability of 4 wins in the next 5 games is 0.128.

8 0
3 years ago
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I they each cost 6.21$ caz if u do 6.21 you get 74.53 but if you do 6.20 you get74.40 what ever u prefer
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