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2 years ago

(ii) Electromagnetic waves transfer energy.

Physics

1 answer:

Andrews [41]2 years ago

8 0

Explanation:

6 examples

radio wave

infrared ray

visible light ray

ultraviolet ray

microwave

gamma ray

3 which are useful

infrared ray

radio waves

gamma ray

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1. On this graph, what is the change in velocity between 5 seconds and 8 seconds?

alukav5142 [94]

Can I see the graph so I can help you

8 0

3 years ago

A circular loop of wire of cross-sectional area 0.12 m2 consists of 200 turns, each carrying 0.50 A. It is placed in a magnetic

defon

Answer:

0.52 Nm

Explanation:

A = 0.12 m^2, N = 200, i = 0.5 A, B = 0.050 T

Angle between the plane of loop and magnetic field = 30 Degree

Angle between the normal of loop and the magnetic field = 90 - 30 = 60 degree

θ = 60°

Torque = N i A B Sinθ

Torque = 200 x 0.5 x 0.12 x 0.050 x Sin 60

Torque = 0.52 Nm

4 0

3 years ago

A bullet is fired horizontally from a handgun at a target 100.0 m away. If the initial speed of the bullet as it leaves the gun

Lera25 [3.4K]

Answer:

The distance is 0.53 m.

Explanation:

Given that,

Target distance = 100.0 m

Speed of bullet = 300 m/s

We need to calculate the total time

Using formula of time

$t=\dfrac{d}{v}$

Put the value into the formula

$t=\dfrac{100.0}{300}$

$t=0.33\ sec$

Now, consider vertical motion of bullet.

Initial velocity of bullet in vertical direction = 0 m/s

We need to calculate the vertically distance

Using equation of motion

$s=ut+\dfrac{1}{2}gt^2$

Put the value in the equation

$s=0+\dfrac{1}{2}\times9.8\times(0.33)^2$

$s=0.53\ m$

Hence, The distance is 0.53 m.

5 0

3 years ago

A barrel of oil is exactly 42 gal. how many liters of oil are in a barrel

Natali [406]

The conversion from gallons to liters is 1 = 3.785.

Keeping this in mind...

42 x 3.785 = 158.97 liters.

If rounding, there are about 159 liters of oil in a barrel.

6 0

3 years ago

water in a cup and a kettle can have the same temperature even though the quantities are different . give reasons

jekas [21]

Answer:

The reason is because both are exposed to a virtually infinite heat sink, due to the virtually infinite mass and of the surrounding environment, compared to the sizes of either the cup or the kettle such that the equilibrium temperature, $T_{(equilibrium)}$ reached is the same for both the cup and the kettle as given by the relation;

$\infty M_{(environ)} \times c_{(environ)} \times (T_2 - T_1) = m_{1} \times c_{(water)} \times (T_3 - T_2) + m_{2} \times c_{(water)} \times (T_4 - T_2)$

Due to the large heat sink, T₂ - T₁ ≈ 0 such that the temperature of the kettle and that of the cup will both cool to the temperature of the environment

Explanation:

4 0

3 years ago