Answer:
its the equal sign which the hip hop give me a pop says the equations equal
Step-by-step explanation:
<em>So</em><em> </em><em>the</em><em> </em><em>right</em><em> </em><em>answer</em><em> </em><em>is</em><em> </em><em>of</em><em> </em><em>option</em><em> </em><em>D</em><em>.</em>
<em>Look</em><em> </em><em>at</em><em> </em><em>the</em><em> </em><em>attached</em><em> </em><em>picture</em><em>⤴</em>
<em>Hope</em><em> </em><em>it</em><em> </em><em>will</em><em> </em><em>help</em><em> </em><em>u</em><em>.</em><em>.</em><em>.</em>
X=6 and y=-9. Not sure if y is correct since I kind of rushed but I hope this helps!
Answer:
1). All four triangles are right-angled.
3.) All four triangles are congruent.
4) Area of a rhombus = 4 x area of one triangle.
Step-by-step explanation:
If a rhombus is cut into four triangles using diagonals, the three statements that would apply to any rhombus would be that 'all those four triangles would be right-angled,' 'the triangles would be congruent to one another,' and 'area of one triangle * 4 would be equal to the area of the rhombus.'
As we know, the diagonals bisect one another in a rhombus at 90° and the angles opposite to one another are equal. This <u>proves that all four triangles constructed through the diagonals would be ≅ through SSS congruency and perpendicular to one another because the corresponding edges of the congruent triangles are also ≅</u> . Since the rhombus is divided into four equal parts, the area of one triangle into four would be equals to the area of the rhombus. Thus, <u>options 1, 3, and 4</u> are the correct answers.
Answer:
B
Step-by-step explanation:
So we have the function:
To find the inverse, flip f(x) and x, change f(x) to f⁻¹(x), and solve for it. Thus:
Subtract 32 from both sides:
Multiply both sides by 5/9. The right side will cancel. Thus:
Our answer is B.
And we're done!
