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barxatty [35]
3 years ago
12

Solve for x. Round answer to the nearest tenth (0.1).

Mathematics
2 answers:
Otrada [13]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

9.9 is your answer

Step-by-step explanation:

by using Pythagoras law

p²+b²=h²

7²+7²=x²

x=√{2×49)=7√2or 9.9 is your answer

ICE Princess25 [194]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

x = 9.9

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a isosceles triangle, with sides measurements (1 , 1 , √2), and the angles being (45° - 45° - 90°). Note that the side measurements of 1 is opposite of that of a 45°, while the measurement of √2 is opposite of that of 90°.

In this case, multiply. The side measurement of 1 has 7.

1 x 7 = 7

In the same, you must multiply 7 with √2

x = 7 * √2 = 7√2.

√2 = ~1.414

7 x 1.414 = 9.898

Round to the nearest tenth:

9.898 rounded to the nearest tenth = 9.9

x = 9.9

~

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Answer:

C. x > -7 and x <= 3

Step-by-step explanation:

-3 < x + 4 <= 7

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3 years ago
Simplify: x2/6 ⋅ x2/4
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Answer:

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--------------------------------------------------------------------------

8 0
3 years ago
Graph the line that passes through the points (6, 4)and (8, 8) and determine the equation of the line.
Lesechka [4]
Wow, what a coincidence, I just learned this at school today!
1. Slope
M= yb-ya/xb-xa
M= 8-4/8-6
M= 4/2
M= 2

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Y= mx + b
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6 0
3 years ago
Suppose that 50% of all babies born in a particular hospital are boys. If 6 babies born in the hospital are randomly selected, w
WINSTONCH [101]

Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a 0.3438 = 34.38% probability that fewer than 3 of them are boys.

<h3>What is the binomial distribution formula?</h3>

The formula is:

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

The parameters are:

  • x is the number of successes.
  • n is the number of trials.
  • p is the probability of a success on a single trial.

In this problem, the values of the parameters are given as follows:

n = 6, p = 0.5.

The probability that fewer than 3 of them are boys is given by:

P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)

In which:

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{6,0}.(0.5)^{0}.(0.5)^{6} = 0.0156

P(X = 1) = C_{6,1}.(0.5)^{1}.(0.5)^{5} = 0.0938

P(X = 2) = C_{6,2}.(0.5)^{2}.(0.5)^{4} = 0.2344

Then:

P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) = 0.0156 + 0.0938 + 0.2344 = 0.3438

0.3438 = 34.38% probability that fewer than 3 of them are boys.

More can be learned about the binomial distribution at brainly.com/question/24863377

#SPJ1

7 0
2 years ago
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