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Mkey [24]
3 years ago
9

What is the correct expansion of the binomial (x+y)^5

Mathematics
2 answers:
MrMuchimi3 years ago
8 0
This is the answer to your problem.

GarryVolchara [31]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: The correct expansion is,

x^5+5x^4y+10x^3y^2+10x^2y^3+5xy^4+y^5

Step-by-step explanation:

Since, by the binomial expansion,

(p+q)^n=\sum_{r=0}^{n} ^nC_r (p)^{n-r}(q)^r

Where,

^nC_r=\frac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}

Here, p = x and q = y and n = 5,

By substituting values,

(x+y)^5=\sum_{r=0}^{5} ^5C_r (x)^{n-r}(y)^r

=^5C_0(x)^{5-0}(y)^0+^5C_1 (x)^{5-1}(y)^1+^5C_2 (x)^{5-2}(y)^2+^5C_3 (x)^{5-3}(y)^3+^5C_4 (x)^{5-4}(y)^4+^5C_5(x)^{5-5}(y)^{5}

=1(x)^5(y)^0+\frac{5!}{4!(5-4)!}x^4y^1+\frac{5!}{3!(5-3)!}x^3y^2+\frac{5!}{2!(5-2)!}x^2y^3+\frac{5!}{1!(5-1)!}xy^4+\frac{5!}{5!(5-5)!}x^0y^5

=x^5+\frac{5!}{4!1!}x^4y^1+\frac{5!}{3!2!}x^3y^2+\frac{5!}{2!3!}x^2y^3+\frac{5!}{1!4!}x^1y^4+\frac{5!}{5!0!}x^0y^5

=x^5+\frac{5\times 4!}{4!}x^4y^1+\frac{5\times 4\times 3!}{3!2!}x^3y^2+\frac{5\times 4\times 3!}{2!3!}x^2y^3+\frac{5\times 4!}{4!}x^1y^4+\frac{5!}{5!}y^5

=x^5+5x^4y+10x^3y^2+10x^2y^3+5xy^4+y^5

Which is the required expansion.

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lina2011 [118]

Answer:

(a) the new angle the ladder makes with the ground is 32.7^o

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Step-by-step explanation:

Notice that the ladder doesn't change its length in the process.

So let's start from the initial situation , finding the distance from the ground at which the ladder touches the wall when the angle with the ground is 70^o. Notice that this situation is represented by a right angle triangle with the right angle between the wall and the ground (see attached image), and that we can use the sine function to find the side opposite to the 70 degree angle:

sin(70^o)=\frac{opposite}{hypotenuse} \\sin(70^o)=\frac{h}{10}\\h=10\, sin(70^o) \approx 9.4 \,\,m

therefore 9.4 meters is approximately the height at which the ladder touches the wall initially.

Now, if the tip of the ladder goes down the wall 4 meters, it is now at 9.4 m - 4 m = 5.4 m from the ground. We can therefore use again the sine function to solve for the new angle:

sin(x)=\frac{opposite}{hypotenuse} \\sin(x)=\frac{5.4}{10} \\sin(x)=0.54\\x=arcsin(0.54)\\x= 32.7^o

To answer the second question we need to find the original distance from the wall that the bottom of the ladder was originally, and for that we can use the cosine function:

cos(70^o)=\frac{adjacent}{hypotenuse} \\cos(70^o)=\frac{x}{10}\\x=10\,cos(70^o)\\x\approx 3.4  \,\,m

Now fro the new position of the bottom of the ladder relative to the wall:

cos(32.7^o)=\frac{adjacent}{10} \\adjacent=10\,cos(32.7^o)\\adjacent\approx 8.4\,\,m

then the difference in between those two distances is what we need:

8.4 m - 3.4 m = 5 m

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Step-by-step explanation:

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please like and Mark as brainliest

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