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3 years ago

Why electric potential of earth is taken to be zero?

Physics

1 answer:

stiv31 [10]3 years ago

4 0

The ground is very large an small amount of electric charge wont affect it

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2 years ago

Arunner has a speed of 23 m/s. They see the finish line and speed up to 27 m/s. This happens in 5 seconds. If the runner has a m

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3 years ago

Suppose that an asteroid traveling straight toward the center of the earth were to collide with our planet at the equator and bu

vlada-n [284]

Answer:

$\frac{1}{10}$ M

Explanation:

To apply the concept of angular momentum conservation, there should be no external torque before and after

As the asteroid is travelling directly towards the center of the Earth, after impact ,it does not impose any torque on earth's rotation, So angular momentum of earth is conserved

⇒ $I_{1} \times W_{1} =I_{2} \times W_{2}$

$I_{1}$ is the moment of interia of earth before impact
$W_{1}$ is the angular velocity of earth about an axis passing through the center of earth before impact
$I_{2}$ is moment of interia of earth and asteroid system
$W_{2}$ is the angular velocity of earth and asteroid system about the same axis

let $W_{1}=W$

since $\text{Time period of rotation}∝$ $\frac{1}{\text{Angular velocity}}$

⇒ if time period is to increase by 25%, which is $\frac{5}{4}$ times, the angular velocity decreases 25% which is $\frac{4}{5}$ times

therefore $W_{1}$ $=$ $\frac{4}{5} \times W_{1}$

$I_{1}=\frac{2}{5} \times M\times R^{2}$ (moment of inertia of solid sphere)

where M is mass of earth

R is radius of earth

$I_{2}=\frac{2}{5} \times M\times R^{2}+M_{1}\times R^{2}$

(As given asteroid is very small compared to earth, we assume it be a particle compared to earth, therefore by parallel axis theorem we find its moment of inertia with respect to axis)

where $M_{1}$ is mass of asteroid

⇒ $\frac{2}{5} \times M\times R^{2} \times W_{1}=}(\frac{2}{5} \times M\times R^{2}$ $+$ $M_{1}\times R^{2})\times(\frac{4}{5} \times W_{1})$

$\frac{1}{2} \times M\times R^{2}$ = $(\frac{2}{5} \times M\times R^{2}$ + $M_{1}\times R^{2})$

$M_{1}\times R^{2}=$ $\frac{1}{10} \times M\times R^{2}$

⇒ $M_{1}=}$ $\frac{1}{10} \times M$

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2 years ago

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Explanation:

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