Answer:
v_2 = 2*v
Explanation:
Given:
- Mass of both charges = m
- Charge 1 = Q_1
- Speed of particle 1 = v
- Charge 2 = 4*Q_1
- Potential difference p.d = 10 V
Find:
What speed does particle #2 attain?
Solution:
- The force on a charged particle in an electric field is given by:
F = Q*V / r
Where, r is the distance from one end to another.
- The Net force acting on a charge accelerates it according to the Newton's second equation of motion:
F_net = m*a
- Equate the two expressions:
a = Q*V / m*r
- The speed of the particle in an electric field is given by third kinetic equation of motion.
v_f^2 - v_i^2 = 2*a*r
Where, v_f is the final velocity,
v_i is the initial velocity = 0
v_f^2 - 0 = 2*a*r
Substitute the expression for acceleration in equation of motion:
v_f^2 = 2*(Q*V / m*r)*r
v_f^2 = 2*Q*V / m
v_f = sqrt (2*Q*V / m)
- The velocity of first particle is v:
v = sqrt (20*Q / m)
- The velocity of second particle Q = 4Q
v_2 = sqrt (20*4*Q / m)
v_2 = 2*sqrt (20*Q / m)
v_2 = 2*v
Answer:
<em>The magnetic field through the coil at first increases steadily up to its maximum value, and then decreases gradually to its minimum value.</em>
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Explanation:
At first, the magnet fall towards the coils; inducing a gradually increasing magnetic field through the coil as it falls into the coil. At the instance when half the magnet coincides with the coil, the magnetic field magnitude on the coil is at its maximum value. When the magnet falls pass the coil towards the floor, the magnetic field then starts to decrease gradually from a strong magnitude to a weak magnitude.
This action creates a changing magnetic flux around the coil. The result is that an induced current is induced in the coil, and the induced current in the coil will flow in such a way as to oppose the action of the falling magnet. This is based on lenz law that states that the induced current acts in such a way as to oppose the motion or the action that produces it.
<span>The speed of longitudinal waves, S, in a thin rod = âšYoung modulus / density , where Y is in N/m^2.
So, S = âšYoung modulus/ density. Squaring both sides, we have, S^2 = Young Modulus/ density.
So, Young Modulus = S^2 * density; where S is the speed of the longitudinal wave.
Then Substiting into the eqn we have (5.1 *10^3)^2 * 2.7 * 10^3 = 26.01 * 10^6 * 2.7 *10^6 = 26.01 * 2.7 * 10^ (6+3) = 70.227 * 10 ^9</span>
Answer:
0.06 N
1.08 m/s
Explanation:
m = mass of the fan cart = 0.250 kg
a = acceleration of the fan cart = 24 cm/s² = 0.24 m/s²
F = Net force on the cart
Net force on the cart is given as
F = ma
F = (0.250) (0.24)
F = 0.06 N
v₀ = initial velocity of the cart = 0 m/s
v = final velocity of the cart
t = time interval = 4.5 s
Using the equation
v = v₀ + a t
v = 0 + (0.24) (4.5)
v = 1.08 m/s
Answer:
The manipulated variable is also known as the independent variable
Explanation:
When remembering this remember independent as in you independently change the outcome
