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3 years ago

7

According to the Universal Law of Gravitation, every object attracts every other object in the universe. Why can’t you feel the

force of attraction between you and Mars

1 answer:

inessss [21]3 years ago

6 0

Mars is officially frank gallagers son

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Anser the photo and i'll give brainlest

Maurinko [17]

Answer:

6 b

7 d

Explanation:

6. removed anther

7. recessive

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3 years ago

Is diet Pepsi heterogeneous or is it homogeneous

Lana71 [14]

Heterogeneous because it has less amount of sugar than the regular Pepsi has

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3 years ago

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What is the maximum value of the magnetic field at a<br> distance2.5m from a 100-W light bulb?

MA_775_DIABLO [31]

To solve this problem we will apply the concepts related to the intensity included as the power transferred per unit area, where the area is the perpendicular plane in the direction of energy propagation.

Since the propagation occurs in an area of spherical figure we will have to

$I = \frac{P}{A}$

$I = \frac{P}{4\pi r^2}$

Replacing with the given power of the Bulb of 100W and the radius of 2.5m we have that

$I = \frac{100}{4\pi (2.5)^2}$

$I = 1.2738W/m^2$

The relation between intensity I and $E_{max}$

$I = \frac{E_max^2}{2\mu_0 c}$

Here,

$\mu_0$ = Permeability constant

c = Speed of light

Rearranging for the Maximum Energy and substituting we have then,

$E_{max}^2 = 2I\mu_0 c$

$E_{max}=\sqrt{2I\mu_0 c }$

$E_{max} = 2(1.2738)(4\pi*10^{-7})(3*10^8)$

$E_{max} = 30.982 V/m$

Finally the maximum magnetic field is given as the change in the Energy per light speed, that is,

$B_{max} = \frac{E_{max}}{c}$

$B_{max} = \frac{30.982 V /m}{3*10^8}$

$B_{max} = 1.03275 *10{-7} T$

Therefore the maximum value of the magnetic field is $B_{max} = 1.03275 *10{-7} T$

3 0

3 years ago

SOMEONE HELP ME PLEASE

mihalych1998 [28]

Explanation:

By the second law of Newton we get the relation

F = ma

5 0

3 years ago

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An electron in a television tube is accelerated uniformly from rest to a speed of 8.4\times 10^7~\text{m/s}8.4×10 7 m/s over

stich3 [128]

Answer:

P=3.42×10^-6 J/s

Explanation:

From the kinematics of motion with constant acceleration we know that :

vf^2=vi^2+2*a(xf-xi)

Where :

• vf , vi, are the the final and the initial velocity of the electron

• a is the acceleration of the electron

• xf , xi are the final and the initial position of the electron .

Strategy for solving the problem : at first from the given information we calculate the acceleration of the electron.

Givens: vf = 8.4 x 10^7 m/s , vi, = 0 m/s , xf = 0.025 m and xi = 0 m

vf^2 =vi^2+2*a(xf-xi)

vf^2-vi^2=2*a(xf-xi)

2*a(xf-xi)= vf^2-vi^2

a = (vf^2-vi^2)/2(xf-xi)

Pluging known information to get :

a = (vf^2-vi^2)/2(xf-xi)

= 1.411 × 10^17

From the acceleration and the previous Eq. we can calculate the final velocity of the electron but a new position xf = 0.01 m

so,

vf^2 =vi^2+2*a(xf-xi)

vf^2 =5.312× 10^7

From the following Eq. we can calculate the time elapsed in this motion .

xf =xi+vi*t+1/2*a*t

xf =xi+vi*t+1/2*a*t

t=√2(xf-xi)/a

t=3.765×10^-10 s

now we can use the power P Eq.

P=W/Δt => ΔK/Δt

Where: the work done W change the kinetic energy K of the electron ,

ΔK=Kf-Ki=>1/2*m*vf^2-1/2*m*vi^2

P=1/2*m*vf^2-1/2*m*vi^2/Δt

P=3.42×10^-6 J/s

6 0

3 years ago