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igor_vitrenko [27]
3 years ago
10

Where do all the points on a plane equidistant from the endpoints of AB lie?. . a. the points lie on a plane. b. the points lie

on a sphere. c. the points lie on a circle. d. the points lie on a line. e. none of the above
Mathematics
1 answer:
zavuch27 [327]3 years ago
4 0
I am thinking that the correct answer among the choices presented is option D. The points lie on the line equidistant from the endpoints of AB. <span>The points lie on the line that is the perpendicular-bisector of segment AB. </span>Hope this answers your question. 
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Find (r-s) (t-s) + (s-r) (s-t) for all numbers r, s, and t. (a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 2rt (d) 2(s-r) (t-s) (e) 2(r-s) (t-s)
lyudmila [28]
Notice that the 2 expressions have 2 common terms.

(r-s) is just (s-r) times (-1)

similarly

(t-s) is just (s-t) times (-1)

this means that :

(r-s) (t-s) + (s-r) (s-t)=-(s-r)[-(s-t)]+(s-r) (s-t)

the 2 minuses in the first multiplication cancel each other so we have:

-(s-r)[-(s-t)]+(s-r) (s-t)=(s-r) (s-t)+(s-r) (s-t)=2(s-r) (s-t)

Answer:

d)<span>2(s-r) (t-s) </span>
3 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
3(x-1) =2x - 3 +3x <br>solve for x please and thank you :]<br>​
Fynjy0 [20]

Answer:

x = 0

Step-by-step explanation:

3(x - 1) = 2x - 3 + 3x

3x - 3 = 2x - 3 + 3x

0 - 3 = 2x - 3

0 = 2x

2x = 0

x = 0 ÷ 2

<u>x</u><u> </u><u>=</u><u> </u><u>0</u>

3 0
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ASAP Will mark Brainliest What is the value of this expression? (−4)4
Vitek1552 [10]

Answer:

-256

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
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A real estate agent has 14 properties that she shows. She feels that there is a 50% chance of selling any one property during a
Ratling [72]

Answer:

91.02% probability of selling more than 4 properties in one week.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each property, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is sold, or it is not. The chance of selling any one property is independent of selling another property. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

In this problem we have that:

n = 14, p = 0.5

Compute the probability of selling more than 4 properties in one week.

Either you sell 4 or less properties in one week, or you sell more. The sum of the probabilities of these events is decimal 1. So

P(X \leq 4)  + P(X > 4) = 1

We want to find P(X > 4). So

P(X > 4) = 1 - P(X \leq 4)

In which

P(X \leq 4) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4)

So

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{14,0}.(0.5)^{0}.(0.5)^{14} = 0.000061

P(X = 1) = C_{14,1}.(0.5)^{1}.(0.5)^{13} = 0.000854

P(X = 2) = C_{14,2}.(0.5)^{2}.(0.5)^{12} = 0.0056

P(X = 3) = C_{14,3}.(0.5)^{3}.(0.5)^{11} = 0.0222

P(X = 4) = C_{14,4}.(0.5)^{4}.(0.5)^{10} = 0.0611

So

P(X \leq 4) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) = 0.000061 + 0.000854 + 0.0056 + 0.0222 + 0.0611 = 0.0898

Finally

P(X > 4) = 1 - P(X \leq 4) = 1 - 0.0898 = 0.9102

91.02% probability of selling more than 4 properties in one week.

8 0
3 years ago
Help me please I’ll mark as brainliest!!
Vladimir79 [104]

Answer:

i wish i could help so sorry

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
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