Answer:
64%
Step-by-step explanation:
The percentage of variation in the dependent variable explained by the estimated regression is calculated with the coefficient of correlation as follows:
First, square the coefficient of correlation: 0.8^2 = 0.64
And then, multiply this result by 100, so that, it is expressed as a percentage: 0.64*100 = 64%
I believe it would still be 4 love
The answer is d I think if it is can I have brainiest
Answer:
m1=12 and m2=168
Step-by-step explanation:
<span>In order to answer this question, you factor out a 2 and then use factorization for the rest of the answer to come up with the binomial. The answer is:
1. 2(3x+4)(x-1)=0
Hope this helps! :)</span>
