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patriot [66]
3 years ago
15

10) A game went on sale from $16.00 to $13.00. What is the percent of

Mathematics
1 answer:
Aleks04 [339]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The answer is b) 18.75% decrease

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Solve then check solution
klio [65]

Answer:

1. z = 128

2. x = 4.2

3. c = 10

4. w = 100

5. a = 95.2

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Solve for z:

z/16 = 8

Multiply both sides of z/16 = 8 by 16:

(16 z)/16 = 16×8

(16 z)/16 = 16/16×z = z:

z = 16×8

16×8 = 128:

Answer:  z = 128

_____________________________________________________

2. Solve for x:

3.5 x = 14.7

Divide both sides of 3.5 x = 14.7 by 3.5:

(3.5 x)/3.5 = 14.7/3.5

3.5/3.5 = 1:

x = 14.7/3.5

14.7/3.5 = 4.2:

Answer:  x = 4.2

____________________________________________

3. Solve for c:

32 = 3.2 c

32 = 3.2 c is equivalent to 3.2 c = 32:

3.2 c = 32

Divide both sides of 3.2 c = 32 by 3.2:

(3.2 c)/3.2 = 32/3.2

3.2/3.2 = 1:

c = 32/3.2

32/3.2 = 10:

Answer:  c = 10

__________________________________________________

4. Solve for w:

(2 w)/5 = 40

Multiply both sides of (2 w)/5 = 40 by 5/2:

(5×2 w)/(2×5) = 5/2×40

5/2×2/5 = (5×2)/(2×5):

(5×2)/(2×5) w = 5/2×40

5/2×40 = (5×40)/2:

(5×2 w)/(2×5) = (5×40)/2

(5×2 w)/(2×5) = (2×5)/(2×5)×w = w:

w = (5×40)/2

2 | 2 | 0

| 4 | 0

- | 4 |  

| | 0

| - | 0

| | 0:

w = 5×20

5×20 = 100:

Answer: w = 100

___________________________________________________

5. Solve for a:

a/14 = 6.8

Multiply both sides of a/14 = 6.8 by 14:

(14 a)/14 = 14×6.8

(14 a)/14 = 14/14×a = a:

a = 14×6.8

14×6.8 = 95.2:

Answer:  a = 95.2

6 0
2 years ago
Is 1/8 bigger or smaller than 3/4?
Advocard [28]
Small, because 1 divided by 8 = 0.125, and 3 divided by 4 = .75 Hope this helps!
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
PLEASE HELP ANSWER ASAP NO LINKS PLZ
schepotkina [342]

Answer:

Y = 4

Step-by-step explanation:

12 - 8 = 4  and if you put another triangle it will look like a complete square, so you will need to subtract it     Hope it Helps  

7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Suppose I ask you to pick any four cards at random from a deck of 52, without replacement, and bet you one dollar that at least
Tatiana [17]

Answer:

a) No, because you have only 33.8% of chances of winning the bet.

b) No, because you have only 44.7% of chances of winning the bet.

Step-by-step explanation:

a) Of the total amount of cards (n=52 cards) there are 12 face cards (3 face cards: Jack, Queen, or King for everyone of the 4 suits: clubs, diamonds, hearts and spades).

The probabiility of losing this bet is the sum of:

- The probability of having a face card in the first turn

- The probability of having a face card in the second turn, having a non-face card in the first turn.

- The probability of having a face card in the third turn, having a non-face card in the previous turns.

- The probability of having a face card in the fourth turn, having a non-face card in the previous turns.

<u><em>1) The probability of having a face card in the first turn</em></u>

In this case, the chances are 12 in 52:

P_1=P(face\, card)=12/52=0.231

<u><em>2) The probability of having a face card in the second turn, having a non-face card in the first turn.</em></u>

In this case, first we have to get a non-face card (there are 40 in the dech of 52), and then, with the rest of the cards (there are 51 left now), getting a face card:

P_2=P(non\,face\,card)*P(face\,card)=(40/52)*(12/51)=0.769*0.235=0.181

<u><em>3) The probability of having a face card in the third turn, having a non-face card in the first and second turn.</em></u>

In this case, first we have to get two consecutive non-face card, and then, with the rest of the cards, getting a face card:

P_3=(40/52)*(39/51)*(12/50)\\\\P_3=0.769*0.765*0.240=0.141

<u><em>4) The probability of having a face card in the fourth turn, having a non-face card in the previous turns.</em></u>

In this case, first we have to get three consecutive non-face card, and then, with the rest of the cards, getting a face card:

P_4=(40/52)*(39/51)*(38/50)*(12/49)\\\\P_4=0.769*0.765*0.76*0.245=0.109

With these four probabilities we can calculate the probability of losing this bet:

P=P_1+P_2+P_3+P_4=0.231+0.181+0.141+0.109=0.662

The probability of losing is 66.2%, which is the same as saying you have (1-0.662)=0.338 or 33.8% of winning chances. Losing is more probable than winning, so you should not take the bet.

b) If the bet involves 3 cards, the only difference with a) is that there is no probability of getting the face card in the fourth turn.

We can calculate the probability of losing as the sum of the first probabilities already calculated:

P=P_1+P_2+P_3=0.231+0.181+0.141=0.553

There is 55.3% of losing (or 44.7% of winning), so it is still not convenient to bet.

5 0
3 years ago
A store has a 20% sale on everything. An item originally cost 350 AED. What is the sale price? Show your work of how you calcula
slega [8]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

A store has a 20% sale on everything.

So since you are saving 20%, you will only be paying 80% of the original price.

To find the sale price use the following formula:

Sale price = 80% x original price

They told us the original price = 350 AED

This means:

Sale price = 80% x 350

I think it would be easiest to change 80% into a fraction if you don't have a calculator :)

80% = \frac{80}{100}  = \frac{4}{5}

This means that the

Sale Price= \frac{4}{5} x 350 = 280 AED

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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