Answer:
134/300 or 67/150
Step-by-step explanation:
the LCM of 15 and 100 is 300. 15 *20 is 300 so we multiply both the numerator and denominator of 1/15 by 20 to get 20/300, with 38/100 we multiply by 3 to get 114/300. Now we add 20/300 and 114/300 to get 134/300 which has a common factor of 2 so we can simply it to 67/150
Factor the equation so...
(r^2-pr) and (p^2q-pqr)
Factor out (r^2-pr) = r(r-p)
Factor out (p^2q-pqr) = pq(p-r)
Add a negative to r(r-p) to make it -r(p-r)
(pq-r)(p-r) is the answer... I'm sorry I can't explain things well, but I tried.
Answer:
5
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
In where my friend
Mark me as brainliest
The answer would be 5/55 because if you subtract 32 from 37 you would end up with 5 and because the denominator was the same you keep the denominator the same.