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fomenos
3 years ago
13

The machine in the figure is ideal and an effort force of

Physics
1 answer:
DENIUS [597]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

1.5 m

Explanation:

Let the distance from the box to the pivot be c.

Let the distance from the pivot to the effort be y.

From the question given above, the following data were obtained:

Effort force (Fₑ) = 7 N

Force of resistance (Fᵣ) = 14 N

Distance from the box to the pivot (c) = 0.75 m

Distance from the pivot to the effort (y) =?

Clockwise moment = Fₑ × y

Anticlock wise moment = Fᵣ × c

Clockwise moment = Anticlock wise moment

Fₑ × y = Fᵣ × c

7 × y = 14 × 0.75

7 × y = 10.5

Divide both side by 7

y = 10.5 / 7

y = 1.5 m

Therefore, the distance from the pivot to the effort is 1.5 m

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*example included* Two uncharged spheres are separated by 3.50 m. If 1.30 ✕ 10¹² electrons are removed from one sphere and place
likoan [24]

Considering the Coulomb's Law, the magnitude of the Coulomb force is 3.1865 N.

<h3>Coulomb's Law</h3>

Charged bodies experience a force of attraction or repulsion on approach.

From Coulomb's Law it is possible to predict what the electrostatic force of attraction or repulsion between two particles will be according to their electric charge and the distance between them.

From Coulomb's Law, the electric force with which two point charges at rest attract or repel each other is directly proportional to the product of the magnitude of both charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance that separates them:

F=k\frac{Qq}{d^{2} }

where:

  • F is the electrical force of attraction or repulsion. It is measured in Newtons (N).
  • Q and q are the values ​​of the two point charges. They are measured in Coulombs (C).
  • d is the value of the distance that separates them. It is measured in meters (m).
  • K is a constant of proportionality called the Coulomb's law constant. It depends on the medium in which the charges are located. Specifically for vacuum k is approximately 9×10⁹ \frac{Nm^{2} }{C^{2} }.

The force is attractive if the charges are of opposite sign and repulsive if they are of the same sign.

<h3>This case</h3>

In this case, you know that:

  • The two uncharged sphere are separated by the distance of d= 3.50 m
  • The number of electrons are 1.30×10¹².
  • Electrons is elementary charge and charges on both the sphere is same. The value of electron is 1.602×10⁻¹⁹ C. This is, Q=q=1.30×10¹²×1.602×10⁻¹⁹ C= 2.0826×10⁻⁷ C

Replacing in Coulomb's Law:

F=9x10^{9} \frac{Nm^{2} }{C^{2} }\frac{(2.0826x10^{-7} C)x(2.0826x10^{-7} C)}{(3.50 m)^{2} }

Solving:

<u><em>F= 3.1865 N</em></u>

Finally, the magnitude of the Coulomb force is 3.1865 N.

Learn more about Coulomb's Law:

brainly.com/question/26892767

#SPJ1

7 0
1 year ago
Which statement is incorrect when considering gases? 1. Gas molecules are in constant, random motion at room temperature 2. The
vova2212 [387]

Answer:

4

Explanation:

For gases :

1. The motion of gases molecule is in random manner at the room temperature.

2.The distance between the gas molecule is more and that is why gas can be compress.

3.The attraction force between the gas molecule is negligible or we can say that there is no any force between the gas molecules.that is why gas can be filled in the container.But the motion of the gas molecule does not stop they are still moving inside the container but the space for movement become less.When a gas container heated then the container start to vibrate because the movement of the gas molecule.

So the option 4 is incorrect.

6 0
3 years ago
The human ear canal is about 2.9 cm long and can be regarded as a tube open at one end and closed at the eardrum. What is the fu
solniwko [45]

The frequency of the human ear canal is 2.92 kHz.

Explanation:

As the ear canal is like a tube with open at one end, the wavelength of sound passing through this tube will propagate 4 times its length of the tube. So wavelength of the sound wave will be equal to four times the length of the tube. Then the frequency can be easily determined by finding the ratio of velocity of sound to wavelength. As the velocity of sound is given as 339 m/s, then the wavelength of the sound wave propagating through the ear canal is  

Wavelength=4*Length of the ear canal

As length of the ear canal is given as 2.9 cm, it should be converted into meter as follows:

wavelength = 4*2.9*10^{-2} =0.116

Then the frequency is determined as

f=c/λ=339/0.116=2922 Hz=2.92 kHz.

So, the frequency of the human ear canal is 2.92 kHz.

4 0
3 years ago
A 60 g ball of clay is thrown horizontally at 40 m/s toward a 1.5 kg block sitting at rest on a frictionless surface. the clay h
Bingel [31]
The solution for this problem is:
Let u denote speed. 

Equating momentum before and after collision: 
= 0.060 * 40 = (1.5 + 0.060) u 
= 2.4 = 1.56 u
= 2.4 / 1.56 = 1.56 u / 1.56
= 1.6 m / s is the answer for this question. This is the speed after the collision.
7 0
3 years ago
Which state of matter is best at conducting heat?
jek_recluse [69]
Solids are the best at conducting heat. 
4 0
3 years ago
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