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vichka [17]
4 years ago
12

A cylinder is 0.10 m in radius and 0.20 in length. Its rotational inertia, about the cylinder axis on which it is mounted, is 0.

020 kg  m2. A string is wound around the cylinder and pulled with a force of 1.0 N. The angular acceleration of the cylinder is:
Physics
1 answer:
Bumek [7]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:5 rad/s^2

Explanation:

Given

Radius of cylinder r=0.1 m

Length L=0.2 in.

Moment of inertia I=0.020 kg-m^2

Force F=1 N

We Know Torque is given by

Torque =I\alpha =F\cdot r

where \alpha =angular\ acceleration

I\alpha =F\cdot r

0.02\cdot \alpha =1\cdot 0.1

\alpha =5 rad/s^2    

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One end of a thin rod is attached to a pivot, about which it can rotate without friction. Air resistance is absent. The rod has
Scrat [10]

Answer:

5.24 m/s

Explanation:

So for the rod to be able to rise upward to the straight up position, the kinetic energy caused by linear speed v0 must be just enough to convert into the potential energy.

Since the rod is uniform in mass, we can treat the body as 1 point, at its center of mass, or geometric center, aka 0.35 / 2 = 0.175 m from the pivot.

For the rod to swing from bottom to top, the center must have moved a distance of h = 0.175 * 2 = 0.35 m, vertically speaking.

Since we neglect friction and air resistance, according to the law of energy conservation then:

E_k = E_p

mv^2/2 = mgh

Where v is the speed at the center of mass, g = 9.81 m/s2 is the gravitational acceleration, and m is the mass. We can divide both sides by m

v^2 = 2gh = 2*9.81*0.35 = 6.867

v = \sqrt{6.867} = 2.62 m/s

As this is only the speed at the center of mass, the speed at the bottom end would be different, to calculate this, we need to find the common angular speed:

\omega = v / r = 2.62 / 0.175 = 14.97 rad/s

Where r is the rotation radius, or the distance from pivot point to the center of mass

v_0 = \omega R = 14.97*0.35 = 5.24 m/s

Where R is the distance from the pivot to the bottom end of the rod

5 0
3 years ago
Tính lực tương tác giữa 2 điện tích q1=4.10^-6C và q2=-3.10^-6C cách nhau một 3cm đặt trong dầu hoả = 2
olga2289 [7]

Explanation:

decimal diamond ml dias and ka n t u t a n mo papa mo

4 0
2 years ago
1.
lyudmila [28]

Answer:

100m \div  \frac{9 \: m}{1sec}  = 11.11 \: sec \:

I guess you can round it to 11 seconds.

Explanation:

Going with a speed 9m/s means you are going 9 meters in each second.

If you are going 9 meters in second how many seconds will it take to 100 meters?

Visually;

9 meters - - - 1 second

100 meters - - - ?seconds.

When you write like this 9 times ?seconds equal to 100 meters time 1 second. (you probably know this but just in case)

So to find ?second you multiply 100meters by 1 and divide it by 9 whixh will give you 11.1111 seconds whixh again I believe you can round it to 11.

(Kind of a) Proof;

If 9m * ?sec = 100 m * 1 sec

you send 9 meters to other side.

?sec = (100 m * 1 sec) ÷ 9m

Hope it was clear and it helps! Please let me know if you have any questions.

7 0
3 years ago
How long (in seconds) does it take a car accelerating at 3.1 m/s2 to go from rest<br> to 51 m/s?
Nesterboy [21]

Answer:

 t  = 16.5s

Explanation:

Given parameters:

Acceleration = 3.1m/s²

Initial velocity  = 0m/s

Final velocity  = 51m/s

Unknown:

Time taken  = ?

Solution:

To solve this problem we need to reiterate that acceleration is the rate of change of velocity with time.

So;

        Acceleration  = \frac{v  - u }{t}  

v is the final velocity

u is the initial velocity

t is the time taken

  So;

       3.1  = \frac{51 - 0}{t}  

    3.1t  = 51

       t  = 16.5s

8 0
3 years ago
How much force, in g cm/s2
scoray [572]
In this question force is measured in  g cm/s2 so we know that to get the answer we times g by cm/s2 
50 × 20 = 1000
3 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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