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Sidana [21]
3 years ago
11

1/4” is the same as 2/8"

Mathematics
2 answers:
Alina [70]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

yes it is

Step-by-step explanation:

all you do is 1 times 2 = 2 and 4 times 2= 8 they are equivalent

Delvig [45]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

uhhh yeah it is

Step-by-step explanation:

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A boiler has five identical relief valves. The probability that any particular valve will open on demand is 0.93. Assume indepen
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There is a 99.99998% probability that at least one valve opens.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each valve there are only two possible outcomes. Either it opens on demand, or it does not. This means that we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this problem.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

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In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinatios of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

In this problem we have that:

n = 5, p = 0.93

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This is P(X \geq 1)

Either no valves open, or at least one does. The sum of the probabilities of these events is decimal 1. So:

P(X = 0) + P(X \geq 1) = 1

P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0)

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