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3 years ago

URGENT Look at picture to see question

Mathematics

1 answer:

Murljashka [212]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

first row you add 4 to get the next term. look at the difference in numbers.

second row the difference is 3 so you add 3 to get the next one.

3rd row the nth term is 3n so the one above would be 2n and the first /top nth term would just be n on its own - meaning one lot of it

4th row add 5 so 7-5= 2 being the 0th term. so just add 5 each time. so it would be 4n

bottom row the difference is 14 or to get that do 26-12

don't let it trick you out- after the third term it goes to the tenth so it would be best getting a piece of paper and working the whole of it out so u don't get confused

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Which values for A and B will create infinitely many solutions for this system of equations? Ax-y=8 2x+y=B plss hurry im being t

Lynna [10]

Answer:

A=-2

B=-8

Step-by-step explanation:

In order for the system of linear equations to have infinitely many solution, they must be the same equation.

Ax-y=8

2x+y=B

We need to choose A and B so they are the same equation.

I notice they are both in the same form but in the second column you have opposites;

the -y and y.

So im going to multiply either equation by -1 so that part is exactly the same.

Don't choose both; choose only one.

Let's multiply the first equation by -1.

Doing this gives us the following:

-Ax+y=-8

2x+y=B

So now we can choose A and B so these equations appear exactly the same.

We need -A=2 and B=-8.

-A=2 implies A=(opposite of 2) which is -2.

Conclusion:

A=-2

B=-8

5 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The Town of Hertfordshire clerk knows that 23% of dogs in the town have completed emotional support training. Hertfordshire plan

Nataly_w [17]

Answer:

95.64% probability that under 30% of the dogs are emotional support trained

Step-by-step explanation:

For each dog, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they have completed emotional support training, or they have not. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this problem.

However, we are working with samples that are considerably big. So i am going to aproximate this binomial distribution to the normal.

Binomial probability distribution

Probability of exactly x sucesses on n repeated trials, with p probability.

Can be approximated to a normal distribution, using the expected value and the standard deviation.

The expected value of the binomial distribution is:

$E(X) = np$

The standard deviation of the binomial distribution is:

$\sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{np(1-p)}$

Normal probability distribution

Problems of normally distributed samples can be solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean $\mu$ and standard deviation $\sigma$ , the zscore of a measure X is given by:

$Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}$

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the pvalue, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

When we are approximating a binomial distribution to a normal one, we have that $\mu = E(X)$ , $\sigma = \sqrt{V(X)}$ .