Answer: The Break-Even Point will reduce from $4,285.71 to $4,125
Explanation:
To get the Break-Even Point we can divide Fixed Assets by the Contribution margin.
The Contribution Margin is the Selling Price minus the Variable Cost.
For Scenario 1 the Break-Even Point will be,
= 15,000 / ( 6 - 2.50)
= $4,285.71
For Scenario 2 the Break-Even Point is,
= 16,500 / 6.5 -2.5
= $4,125
The Break-Even Point for Scenario 2 means that even though the higher Fixed Costs could have led to a higher Break-Even Point, the higher price contributed more than the fixed costs did and led to an ultimately lower Break-Even Point than the first Scenario.
<span>The AICPA’s Statements on Auditing Standards is a guideline for auditors. This guideline shows what the minimal standards are in order for an auditor to perform their work correctly. These guidelines need to be followed in order to ensure accuracy and efficiency.</span>
Answer:
Present value = $75,379.47
Future value is $91,567.97
Explanation:
a) Present value of cash flow is calculated as:
Present value = $14578.25 + $27,325.69 + $33475.53
Present value = $75,379.47
b) Future value of windfall is calculated as
Future value is $91,567.97
Answer: strategic pillars: content, data, and execution
Explanation:
Answer:
a) liabilities only
Explanation:
The journal entry to record the payroll tax expense is shown below:
Payroll tax expense A/c Dr
To Social security tax payable A/c
To Medicate tax payable A/c
To State Unemployment tax payable A/c
To Federal Unemployment tax payable A/c
(Being the payroll tax expense is recorded)
The payroll tax expense is shown on the debit side of the income statement whereas payroll tax payable is shown on the liabilities side of the balance sheet
