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3 years ago

Help me please answer this

Physics

2 answers:

antiseptic1488 [7]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

that's fusion

Explanation:

Vinil7 [7]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

the answer is fusion for this

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A transverse wave on a string is described by the following wave function.y = (0.090 m) sin (px/11 + 4pt)(a) Determine the trans

alukav5142 [94]

Explanation:

(a) It is known that equation for transverse wave is given as follows.

y = $(0.09 m)sin(\pi \frac{x}{11} + 4 \pi t)$

Now, we will compare above equation with the standard form of transeverse wave equation,

y = $A sin(kx + \omega t)$

where, A is the amplitude = 0.09 m

k is the wave vector = $\frac{\pi}{11}$

$\omega$ is the angular frequency = $4\pi$

x is displacement = 1.40 m

t is the time = 0.16 s

Now, we will differentiate the equation with respect to t as follows.

The speed of the wave will be:

v(t) = $\frac{dy}{dt}$

v(t) = $A \omega cos(kx + \omega t)$

v(t) = $(0.09 m)(4\pi) cos(\frac{\pi \times 1.4}{11} + 4 \pi \times 0.16)$

v(t) = -0.84 m/s

The acceleration of the particle in the location is

a(t) = $\frac{dv}{dt}$

a(t) = $-A \omega 2sin(kx + \omega t)$

a(t) = $-(0.09 m)(4 \pi)2 sin(\frac{\pi \times 1.4}{11} + 4\pi \times 0.16)$

a(t) = -9.49 $m/s^{2}$

Hence, the value of transverse wave is 0.84 m/s and the value of acceleration is 9.49 $m/s^{2}$ .

(b) Wavelength of the wave is given as follows.

$\lambda = \frac{2\pi}{k}$

$\lambda = (frac{2\pi}{\frac{\pi}{11})
$

$\lambda$ = 22 m

The period of the wave is

T = $\frac{2 \pi}{\omega}$

T = $\frac{2 \pi}{4 \pi}$

= 0.5 sec

Now, we will calculate the speed of propagation of wave as follows.

v = $\frac{\lambda}{T}$

= $\frac{22 m}{0.5 s}$

= 44 m/s

therefore, we can conclude that wavelength is 22 m, period is 0.5 sec, and speed of propagation of wave is 44 m/s.

7 0

3 years ago

An object with velocity 141 ft/s has a kinetic energy of 1558.71 ftâˆ™lbf, on a planet whose gravity is 31.5 ft/s2. What is its

Sidana [21]

Answer:

The mass of the object is 5.045 lbm.

Explanation:

Given;

kinetic energy of the object, K.E = 1558.71 ft.lbf

velocity of the object, V = 141 ft/s

The kinetic energy of the object is calculated as;

$K.E = \frac{1}{2} mV^2\\\\mV^2 = 2K.E\\\\m = \frac{2K.E}{V^2} \\\\1 \ lbf = 32.174 \ lbm.ft/s^2\\\\m = \frac{2 \ \times \ 1558.71 \ ft.lbf \ \times \ 32.174 \ lbm.ft/s^2 }{(141 \ ft/s)2 \ \ \times \ \ \ \ 1 \ lbf\ }$

$m = \frac{(2 \ \times \ 1558.71 \ \times \ 32.174) \ lbm.ft^2/s^2 }{(141 )^2\ ft^2/s^2 }\\\\m = \frac{(2 \ \times \ 1558.71 \ \times \ 32.174) \ lbm }{(141 )^2 }\\\\m = 5.045 \ lbm$

Therefore, the mass of the object is 5.045 lbm.

6 0

2 years ago

Can a vector be shorter than one of its components

Sauron [17]

It can never be shorter than a component - magnitude of avector is the square root of the sum of the components squared, and a square function never produces a negative number. However, it can be the same size as its component, if that component is the only one

3 0

3 years ago

Pls help :3 ♥️ I rly need this turned in

Lerok [7]

Answer:

It does, it takes 50ml

Explanation:

5 0

3 years ago

The diagram shown represents a block-and-tackle pulley system on which an effort of W Newtons supports a load of 120.0N. If the

natta225 [31]

Answer:

50 N

Explanation:

Efficiency of a machine can't be more than 1, so I assume you mean 40%. (Remember, efficiency and mechanical advantage are not the same).

Efficiency is the ratio of work out of a system to the work in to the system.

e = Wout / Win

Work is force times distance, so:

e = (Fout × Dout) / (Fin × Din)

Rearranging:

Fin = (Fout × Dout) / (e × Din)

Fin = (Fout / e) × (Dout / Din)

Fin = (Fout / e) / (Din / Dout)

We know that e = 0.40, and Fout = 120 N. Since there are 6 pulleys, we also know that Din/Dout = 6.

F = (120 N / 0.4) / 6

F = 50 N

5 0

2 years ago