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Aleksandr-060686 [28]
3 years ago
15

The change in momentum of an object is equal to the Question 4 options: Force acting on it times its velocity. impulse acting on

it. Change in velocity of the object.
Physics
1 answer:
lesya [120]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

impulse acting on it

Explanation:

The impulse is defined as the product between the force applied to an object (F) and the time interval during which the force is applied (\Delta t):

I=F\Delta t

We can prove that this is equal to the change in momentum of the object. In fact, change in momentum is given by:

\Delta p = m \Delta v

where m is the mass and \Delta v is the change in velocity. Multiplying and dividing by \Delta t, we get

\Delta p = m \frac{\Delta v}{\Delta t} \Delta t

and since \frac{\Delta v}{\Delta t} is equal to the acceleration, a, we have

\Delta p = ma \Delta t

And since the product (ma) is equal to the force, we have

\Delta p = F \Delta t

which corresponds to the impulse.

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Answer:

<h3>n(F) = 4</h3>

Explanation:

Cardinality of a set is the number of elements in that set. Given the set.

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4 years ago
Two bullets of the same size, mass and horizontal velocity are fired at identical blocks, only one is made of steel and the othe
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Answer and Explanation:

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  • Kinetic Energy is relative to mass times speed squared, so in reality, the 2 cases given have practically indistinguishable Kinetic energy. The measure of energy is authoritative, so the two cases will do generally a similar harm given, obviously we look at situations when all the kinetic energy is spent.
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Answer:

Explanation:

If H be the heat flowing in time t through an area of A having thickness d

H = k A x ( θ₂ - θ₁ ) t / d  , k is thermal conductivity , ( θ₂ - θ₁ ) is temperature difference of walls

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3 years ago
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