Do anyone know this? Please no link <3

The objective of the study is to determine whether the magnets are effective in treating pain. For these two independent groups of individuals with equal affections were randomly sampled, one was treated with magnets and the other group of individuals, call it control group, was treated with a placebo treatment.

The information for both samples is:

X₁: pain measurement using a visual analog scale after the individual received magnet treatments.

X₁~N(μ₁;σ₁²)

n₁= 20

X[bar]₁= 0.46

S₁= 0.93

X₂: pain measurement using a visual analog scale of an individual of the control groups.

X₂~N(μ₂;σ₂²)

n₂= 20

X[bar]₂= 0.41

S₂= 1.26

The claim is that the pain reductions of the control group have more variation than the pain reductions of the target group. If it's so then we could suspect that the population variance of the control group, σ₂², will be greater than the population variance of the magnet group, σ₁².

To test the relationship between these two population variances you have to conduct a variance ratio test using the Snedecors F statistic.

The hypotheses are:

H₀: σ₂² ≤ σ₁²

H₁: σ₂² > σ₁²

α: 0.05

$F= (\frac{S_2^2}{S_1^2}) * (\frac{Sigma_2^2}{Sigma_1^2} )~~ F_{(n_2-1);(n_1-1)}$

This hypothesis test is one-tailed to the right, there is only one critical value:

$F_{(n_2-1);(n_1-1); 1 - \alpha } = F_{19;19; 0.95}= 2.17$

The decision rule for the test is:

If $F_{H_0}$ ≥ 2.17, then the decision is to reject the null hypothesis.

If $F_{H_0}$ < 2.17, then the decision is to not reject the null hypothesis.

$F_{H_0}= \frac{S_2^2}{S_1^2}*\frac{Sigma_2^2}{Sigma_1^2} = \frac{(1.26)^2}{(0.93)^2} * 1$

$F_{H_0} = 1.835 = 1.84$

Since the calculated value of F is less than the critical value, the decision is to reject the null hypothesis. So using a 5% significance level the decision is to not reject the null hypothesis, you can conclude that the population variance of the pain reduction of the control group is less or equal than the population variance of the pain reduction on individuals treated with magnets.

I hope it helps!

3 0

4 years ago

Polygon D is a scaled copy of polygon C using a scale factors of 6

Vladimir79 [104]

Answer: The area of the Polygon D is 36 times larger than the area of the Polygon C.

Step-by-step explanation:

<h3> The complete exercise is: "Polygon D is a scaled copy of Polygon C using a scale factor of 6. How many times larger is the area of Polygon D than the area Polygon C"?</h3>

In order to solve this problem it is important to analize the information provided in the exercise.

You know that the Polygon D was obtained by multiplying the lengths of the Polygon C by the scale factor of 6.

Then, you can identify that the Length scale factor used is:

$Length\ scale\ factor=k=6$

Now you have to find the Area scale factor.

Knowing that the Length scale factos is 6, you can say that the Area scale factor is:

$Area \ scale\ factor=k^2=6^2$

Finally, evaluating, you get that this is:

$Area \ scale\ factor=36$

Therefore, knowing the Area scale factor, you can determine that the area of the Polygon D is 36 times larger than the area of the Polygon C.

8 0

4 years ago

What does the word “flip” tell you to do in “keep change flip” for dividing fractions a) change the place of the numbers numerat

mars1129 [50]

Answer:

b) change the places of the numbers in the numerator and the denominator for the second fraction

Step-by-step explanation:

In the phrase "keep change flip":

You "keep" the first fraction.

"Change" the division sign into a multiplication sign.

"Flip" (or switch) the places of the numerator and denominator in the second fraction.

Example:

$\frac{1}{2}$ ÷ $\frac{1}{3}$

$\frac{1}{2}*\frac{3}{1}=\frac{3}{2}=1.5$

Hope this helps.

7 0

3 years ago