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Katena32 [7]
3 years ago
10

Pastore Inc. granted options for 1 million shares of its $1 par common stock at the beginning of the current year. The exercise

price is $39 per share, which was also the market value of the stock on the grant date. The fair value of the options was estimated at $7.00 per option. What would be the total compensation indicated by these options
Business
1 answer:
Step2247 [10]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

$7,000,000

Explanation:

Calculation to determine What would be the total compensation indicated by these options

Using this formula

Total Compensation =Beginning options*Fair value of the options

Let plug in the formula

Total Compensation =1,000,000 shares × $7

Total Compensation =$7,000,000

Therefore What would be the total compensation indicated by these options is $7,000,000

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Fischer Company has outstanding 8,000 shares of $100 par value, 5% preferred stock, and 50,000 shares of $1 par value common sto
nikklg [1K]

Answer:

The appropriate solution is "$130,000".

Explanation:

The given values are:

No. of common shares outstanding

= 50,000

Dividend per share

= $1.80

No. of preferred shares outstanding

= 8,000

Dividend per share

= $5

Now,

The total dividend on common shares will be:

=  No. \ of \ common \ shared \ outstanding\times Dividend \ per \ share

On substituting the values, we get

=  50,000\times  1.80

=  90,000 ($)

The total dividend on preferred stock will be:

=  No. \  of \ preferred \ shares \ outstanding\times Divided \ per \ share

On substituting the values, we get

=  8,000\times 5

=  40,000 ($)

Hence,

The total dividend paid by company will be:

=  Total \ dividend \ on \ common \ shares +Total \ dividend  \ on \  preferred \ stock

=  90,000+40,000

=  130,000 ($)

Thus the above is the correct answer.

4 0
3 years ago
Discuss ONE of the components of job analysis.​
levacccp [35]

Answer:

having fun

Explanation:

thank you have fun I'm stuck on the same one

3 0
3 years ago
The Heartlake Corporation manufactures and sells toy gyroscopes. The following data is related to sales and production of the to
ryzh [129]

Answer:

The Question is Incomplete; Full Question is as follows;

Using variable​ costing, what is the contribution margin for last​ year?

<em>Contribution Margin = $362,900</em>

Explanation:

Computation of expenditure margin by differential costing;

<em>Sales </em><em>Minus </em><em>variable cost </em>

  • Sales (190,000 *$8.20)

= $1,558,000  

  • Variable cost of Manufacturing(190,000 units *$1.84)

= $349,600

— variable sales and administrative costs(190,000 units *$4.45)

= $845,500

= contribution margin = $362,900

<em>Keep in mind that; </em><em>Set or Fixed expenses and overhead costs are not taken into account when trying to calculate the contribution margin.</em>

7 0
3 years ago
Select the three soft skills. A. self-awarness B. using a computer C. persistence D. stress management E. holding a meeting
AlekseyPX

The answer would be, D, stress management

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
1. An 80%-owned subsidiary sells merchandise to its parent at a markup of 25% on cost. During the current year, the parent paid
Vedmedyk [2.9K]

Answer:

The unrealised profit (PURP) of $5,000 [ (125,000 * .20) * (.2) ]  should be subtracted from the profit share of Non-Controlling Interest.

Explanation:

When we prepare consolidated financial statements, we treat the companies of group as a single entity. That's why the intra-group transactions must be removed the consolidated statements. This involve adjustment of current accounts, unrealised profit on sale of goods/non-current asset, loan given by one group company to another etc.

When goods are sold by one group company to another at a markup and the buyer has not yet sold it to the third party, then the markup (profit) loading on these items is unrealised from group's point of view. This needs to be removed from the consolidated accounts because no one can make profit by trading with himself. This profit is termed as realised when the goods are sold to the third party. In the individual accounts, profit on this transaction has a credit balance so to remove it we debit the "cost of goods sold of group" and a credit entry to it is made to "inventory". This credit entry to inventory bring down the balance of inventory to what was the cost of that inventory to the group. Moreover, the recording of revenue by seller and inventory by buyer on intra-group sales and purchase is also adjusted.

After all the adjustments are made, the profit is distributed between parent's retained earnings and non-controlling interest. Now if the seller of goods is subsidiary, like in this case, the amount of unreaslised profit is deducted from NCI's profit share to calculate the profit attributable to parent's retained earnings.

7 0
3 years ago
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