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Tems11 [23]
2 years ago
9

Help pls appreciate it pls

Mathematics
1 answer:
Oksana_A [137]2 years ago
5 0

Answer: D.

Step-by-step explanation:

If we know that 1 side equal along with 1 angle is equal to the other triangles angle and side. Than only one answer really stands out (at least to me) if that makes any sense

Hope this helps

:)

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