Answer:
The probability that at least 1 defective card is in the sample is 
Step-by-step explanation:
Here
N = 140
and n = 20
We will use the below given formula
P(at least 1 defective) = 1 - P( 0 defectives)
P( 0 defectives) =
Answer:
x = -5
, y = 0
Step-by-step explanation:
Solve the following system:
{4 x + 7 y = -20 | (equation 1)
2 x - 5 y = -10 | (equation 2)
Subtract 1/2 × (equation 1) from equation 2:
{4 x + 7 y = -20 | (equation 1)
0 x - (17 y)/2 = 0 | (equation 2)
Multiply equation 2 by 2/17:
{4 x + 7 y = -20 | (equation 1)
0 x - y = 0 | (equation 2)
Multiply equation 2 by -1:
{4 x + 7 y = -20 | (equation 1)
0 x+y = 0 | (equation 2)
Subtract 7 × (equation 2) from equation 1:
{4 x+0 y = -20 | (equation 1)
0 x+y = 0 | (equation 2)
Divide equation 1 by 4:
{x+0 y = -5 | (equation 1)
0 x+y = 0 | (equation 2)
Collect results:
Answer: {x = -5
, y = 0
Answer:
thank u for the point /;
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
P(even,blue) = 3/6 x 1/9 which is 1/18
Step-by-step explanation:
370 weeks can also equal 7.09589041, if you need to simplify that just say 7 years
