Hi there
The formula is
A=p (1+r)^t
A future value
P present value 75
R interest rate 0.05
T time
After 1 year the balance is
A=75×(1+0.05)
A=78.75
After 2 years
A=75×(1+0.05)^(2)
A=82.69
After 5 years
A=75×(1+0.05)^(5)
A=95.72
After 20 years
A=75×(1+0.05)^(20)
A=198.99 round
A=199
Hope it helps
Answer:
x = 10
Step-by-step explanation:
I'm not entirely sure what you're asking, however we know that:
5x-6=44
5x must be 50, as 50-6=44
50 divided by 5 is 10, so 10x
Answer:
um..
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
B
Step-by-step explanation:
2y=-3x+6
y = -0.5x + 3
this is a function because it is a linear equation that isn’t undefined
The method of computing that would result in a greater finance charge is a. the daily balance method will have a finance charge $1.02 greater than the adjusted balance method.
<h3>What is the Adjusted Balance Method?</h3>
This refers to the method of accounting that makes use of the owed amount of money at the end of a billing cycle to make its computation on an account after the credits are calculated.
Hence, we can see that when comparing the adjusted balance method to the daily balance method that calculates the interest charges at the end of the day, the daily balance method would have a higher finance charge.
Read more about adjusted balance methods here:
brainly.com/question/1808408
<h3>#SPJ4</h3>
