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givi [52]
2 years ago
7

Help me please!!!! i'll give brainliest!!

Mathematics
2 answers:
KonstantinChe [14]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is 23 i am 100% positive this answer is correct

andreev551 [17]2 years ago
5 0
The answer is it because 23 divided by the total which is 91 give you 35 as a percent
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Which statement best completes the diagram Immigration from Europe increases A. Farmers refuse to move to new territories B. Eur
AveGali [126]

Answer:

A). Farmers refused to move to new territories

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps :) :)

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Can u please help me prove those​
Alex Ar [27]

Answer:

ii

Step-by-step explanation:

A c A u B

B c A

Aç n Bc = Ac

What do you need to be explainer

6 0
3 years ago
Suppose a manufacturer finds that 95% of their production is normal but the final 5% has one or more flaws. Each flawed good has
RUDIKE [14]

Answer:

1)    

FLAW                         TYPE2         NO TYPE2 FLAW

TYPE1                         0.015           0.025

NO TYPE1 FLAW        0.01             0.95

2) 0.04 and $0.04

3) 0.025 and $0.025

4) 0.015 and $0.015

5) 0.95 and $0.95

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that;

financial cost = $1

p(flaw) = 0.05  

p(type 1 flaw / flaw) = 80% = 0.8

p(type 2 flaw / flaw) = 50% = 0.5

p( type 1 and 2 flaw/flaw) = 30% = 0.30

1) Bivariate Table

p( type 1 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 1 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.8 = 0.04

p( type 2 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 2 flaw/flaw)  = 0.05 × 0.5 = 0.025

p( type 1 and 2 flaw) =  p(flow) × p( type 1 & 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.3 = 0.015

p( only 1 flow) = 0.04 - 0.015 = 0.025

p( only 2 flow) =  0.025 - 0.015 = 0.01

THEREFORE  the Bivariate Table;

FLAW                         TYPE2         NO TYPE2 FLAW

TYPE1                         0.015           0.025

NO TYPE1 FLAW       0.01              0.95

2) probability and expectations of type 1 flaw?

p( type 1 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 1 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.8 = 0.04

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 × 0.04 = $0.04

3)  probability and expectation of Type 2 flaw

p( type 2 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 2 flaw/flaw)  = 0.05 × 0.5 = 0.025

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 × 0.025 = $0.025

4) probability and expectations of Type 1 and 2 flaws

p( type 1 and 2 flaw) =  p(flow) × p( type 1 & 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.3 = 0.015

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 * 0.015 = $0.015

5) probability and expectations of no flaws?

Probability of no flaw = P(No flaw) =95% =  0.95

Expected financial cost saved the firm per good due to no flaw

= $1 × 0.95 = $0.95

5 0
3 years ago
Negative nine times the sum of a number and eighteen
bekas [8.4K]
-9(n+18) is the answer
5 0
3 years ago
sales at a local ice cream shop went up 30% in 5 years. if 18,000 ice cream cones were sold in that current year, find the numbe
Setler79 [48]

Answer:

13,846\ cones

Step-by-step explanation:

Let

x -----> the number of ice cream cones sold 5 years ago

Remember that

100\%+30\%=130\%=130/100=1.3

we know that

Sales 5 years ago, multiplied by the 30% increase should equal 18,000 ice cream cones.

so

The linear equation that represent this problem is

1.30x=18,000

Solve for x

Divide by 1.3 both sides

x=13,846\ cones

6 0
2 years ago
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