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Julli [10]
3 years ago
5

−2x−8y=10

Mathematics
1 answer:
Vilka [71]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Um hahahahahhahahahahahahhaha

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Why multiplying the numerator and denominator of a fraction by the same number results in an equivalent fraction?
kotykmax [81]
Im Not That sure But I Belive That If Denominators Are The Same Keep It And Just Do The Math In The Numerator's . ( For Adding ) But Multiplying You Do Both and If The Numerator Is The Bigger Than The Denominator Your Going To Have To Do Extra Math Like A Common Denominator ( I Belive ) . 
8 0
3 years ago
2. Graph the inverse of the function, then determine if the inverse is a function.
charle [14.2K]

The inverse of the function f(x)= x^2 is a function.

<h3>The graph of the inverse</h3>

The equation of the function is

f(x)= x^2

Rewrite as:

y = x^2

Swap x and y

x = y^2

Make y the subject

y = \sqrt x

Rewrite as:

f^{-1}(x) = \sqrt x

So, the inverse of f(x)= x^2 is f^{-1}(x) = \sqrt x

See attachment for the graph

<h3>Is the inverse a function?</h3>

The inverse is a function.

This is so because it passes the vertical line test

Read more about inverse functions at:

brainly.com/question/2883051

#SPJ1

5 0
1 year ago
For every positive even integer n, the function h(n) is defined to be the product of all the even integers from 2 to n, inclusiv
Ugo [173]

Answer:

More than 50

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve, we need to first see that the function is h(n). Picking main points from the question statement:

  • h(n) is the product of all even integers (From 2 to n)
  • p is the smallest factor of h(100)+1
  • h(100)+1 , here n=100

From here, we can write h(100) as:

h(100) = 2 * 4 * 6 * 8 * ...... * 100

h(100) = 2^{50} * (1*2*3*......*50)= 2^{50} * 50!

so,

h(100)+1 =(2^{50} * 50! )+1

Now two numbers,

h(100) and h(100)+1 are consecutive integers and since they are consecutive so they are co-prime. Hence they only have common factor of 1. Example, 13 and 14 have only common factor of 1

As h(100) has all prime numbers from 1 to 50 and according to above statement h(100)+1 won't have any prime factor from 1 to 50, so the smallest prime factor p is greater than 50.

7 0
3 years ago
How many thousands equals one million
musickatia [10]
1000 thousands equal one million
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
3m4 +21 - am4 - 7a =
Yuliya22 [10]
Plug into a calculator
8 0
3 years ago
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